ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A nurse is caring for a client who requires seclusion to prevent harm to others on the unit. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Offer fluids every 2 hours.
- B. Document the client's behavior prior to being placed in seclusion.
- C. Discuss with the client their inappropriate behavior prior to seclusion.
- D. Assess the client's behavior every hour.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to document the client's behavior prior to seclusion. Documenting the behavior is crucial as it helps justify the need for seclusion, provides a clear record of events leading up to the intervention, and ensures transparency in the client's care. Offering fluids every 2 hours (Choice A) is important for hydration but is not directly related to the situation of seclusion. Discussing the inappropriate behavior with the client (Choice C) may not be safe or appropriate when seclusion is necessary for preventing harm. Assessing the client's behavior every hour (Choice D) is important but may not be the most immediate action needed when seclusion is already in place.
2. While caring for a client receiving hemodialysis, which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Withhold all medications until after dialysis.
- B. Check the vascular access site for bleeding after dialysis.
- C. Rehydrate with dextrose 5% in water for hypotension.
- D. Give an antibiotic 30 minutes before dialysis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care when caring for a client receiving hemodialysis is to check the vascular access site for bleeding after dialysis. This is crucial to monitor for any signs of bleeding or complications at the access site. Withholding all medications until after dialysis (Choice A) is not necessary unless specified for certain medications. Rehydrating with dextrose 5% in water for hypotension (Choice C) is not appropriate for addressing hypotension related to hemodialysis. Giving an antibiotic 30 minutes before dialysis (Choice D) is not typically indicated unless there is a specific medical indication for prophylactic antibiotic use.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?
- A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours.
- B. Increased urinary output.
- C. Blood pressure of 118/78 mm Hg.
- D. Decreased peripheral edema.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours is an indication that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid retention. This medication works by promoting diuresis, resulting in increased urine output, which could lead to weight loss. While increased urinary output (choice B) is a common effect of furosemide, weight loss is a more specific indicator of its effectiveness. Blood pressure (choice C) and decreased peripheral edema (choice D) can be influenced by various factors and are not direct indicators of furosemide's effectiveness in reducing fluid retention.
4. What is the best intervention for a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
- A. Administer anticoagulants
- B. Apply compression stockings
- C. Encourage ambulation
- D. Monitor oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best intervention for a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to administer anticoagulants. Anticoagulants help prevent further clot formation and reduce the risk of complications such as pulmonary embolism. Applying compression stockings can help manage symptoms but does not address the underlying issue of clot formation. Encouraging ambulation is beneficial for overall circulation but may not be sufficient to treat DVT. Monitoring oxygen saturation is important, but it is not the primary intervention for suspected DVT.
5. What is the most important assessment for a patient with respiratory distress?
- A. Monitor oxygen saturation
- B. Check for abnormal breath sounds
- C. Check for pitting edema
- D. Perform a neurological exam
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial in assessing a patient with respiratory distress because it helps determine if the patient is receiving adequate oxygen. Oxygen saturation levels provide immediate feedback on the efficiency of oxygen delivery to the tissues. Checking for abnormal breath sounds (Choice B) is relevant in respiratory assessments, but it is secondary to assessing oxygen saturation. Pitting edema (Choice C) and performing a neurological exam (Choice D) are not directly related to assessing respiratory distress and are not the primary focus when managing a patient with breathing difficulties.
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