ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A nurse is caring for a client who requires seclusion to prevent harm to others on the unit. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Offer fluids every 2 hours.
- B. Document the client's behavior prior to being placed in seclusion.
- C. Discuss with the client their inappropriate behavior prior to seclusion.
- D. Assess the client's behavior every hour.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to document the client's behavior prior to seclusion. Documenting the behavior is crucial as it helps justify the need for seclusion, provides a clear record of events leading up to the intervention, and ensures transparency in the client's care. Offering fluids every 2 hours (Choice A) is important for hydration but is not directly related to the situation of seclusion. Discussing the inappropriate behavior with the client (Choice C) may not be safe or appropriate when seclusion is necessary for preventing harm. Assessing the client's behavior every hour (Choice D) is important but may not be the most immediate action needed when seclusion is already in place.
2. A client has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with food to prevent nausea.
- B. Notify your provider if you experience visual disturbances.
- C. Take an antacid with this medication if indigestion occurs.
- D. Avoid taking this medication if your heart rate is less than 60/min.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking digoxin is to notify their provider if they experience visual disturbances. Visual disturbances can be a sign of digoxin toxicity, and prompt notification to the healthcare provider is essential for timely intervention. Choice A is incorrect because digoxin should be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. Choice C is incorrect because antacids can interfere with the absorption of digoxin. Choice D is incorrect because a heart rate less than 60/min is not a sole reason to avoid taking digoxin; rather, it is important to monitor the heart rate and consult with the healthcare provider if there are concerns.
3. A client with osteoporosis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following foods should be recommended?
- A. Almonds
- B. Spinach
- C. Yogurt
- D. Carrots
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Yogurt is a calcium-rich food that helps strengthen bones and should be recommended to clients with osteoporosis. Almonds, spinach, and carrots do not provide as much calcium as yogurt and are not as beneficial for individuals with osteoporosis.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 36 weeks gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Proteinuria of 1+.
- B. Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg.
- C. Respiratory rate of 18/min.
- D. Nonpitting ankle edema.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nonpitting ankle edema is a concerning sign of worsening preeclampsia due to fluid retention and should be reported immediately. Proteinuria of 1+ is a common finding in preeclampsia. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is within normal limits. A respiratory rate of 18/min is also within normal range. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are not as urgent as nonpitting ankle edema in this scenario.
5. What is the priority nursing action for a patient with confusion post-surgery?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Reposition the patient
- C. Check oxygen saturation
- D. Perform a neurological exam
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer oxygen. Post-surgery, confusion in a patient could be due to hypoxia, a condition where the body is deprived of an adequate oxygen supply. Administering oxygen helps address hypoxia promptly, improving oxygen levels in the body and potentially resolving the confusion. Repositioning the patient, checking oxygen saturation, and performing a neurological exam may be important interventions but addressing hypoxia with oxygen administration takes precedence as the priority action.
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