Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who requires seclusion to prevent harm to others on the unit. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Offer fluids every 2 hours.
• B. Document the client's behavior prior to being placed in seclusion.
• C. Discuss with the client their inappropriate behavior prior to seclusion.
• D. Assess the client's behavior every hour.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to document the client's behavior prior to seclusion. Documenting the behavior is crucial as it helps justify the need for seclusion, provides a clear record of events leading up to the intervention, and ensures transparency in the client's care. Offering fluids every 2 hours (Choice A) is important for hydration but is not directly related to the situation of seclusion. Discussing the inappropriate behavior with the client (Choice C) may not be safe or appropriate when seclusion is necessary for preventing harm. Assessing the client's behavior every hour (Choice D) is important but may not be the most immediate action needed when seclusion is already in place.

2. How should a healthcare professional assess for infection in a patient post-surgery?

• A. Check the surgical site
• B. Check for fever
• C. Check for abnormal breath sounds
• D. Check the patient's skin color

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing for infection in a patient post-surgery, checking the surgical site is crucial. Changes in the appearance of the surgical site, such as redness, swelling, warmth, or drainage, can indicate an infection. While checking for fever (Choice B) is also important as it can be a sign of infection, it is a more general symptom and may not always be present. Checking for abnormal breath sounds (Choice C) and skin color (Choice D) are not typically direct indicators of infection in a post-surgery patient.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is experiencing dyspnea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client to take deep breaths.
• B. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position.
• C. Administer a bronchodilator.
• D. Administer oxygen at 6 L/min via face mask.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a high-Fowler's position. This position helps improve breathing by expanding the lungs and aiding in better oxygenation. Encouraging the client to take deep breaths may not be effective in managing dyspnea in COPD as it can lead to fatigue. Administering a bronchodilator may be necessary but placing the client in a high-Fowler's position should be the priority. Administering oxygen at 6 L/min via face mask may also be needed, but positioning is the initial intervention to optimize respiratory function.

4. A client has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. You should take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. You should avoid taking this medication with antacids.
• C. Take your pulse before taking this medication.
• D. You should contact your provider if you experience visual changes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to include when teaching a client about digoxin is to 'Take your pulse before taking this medication.' This is essential because clients taking digoxin need to monitor their pulse to detect signs of bradycardia, a common adverse effect of the medication. Option A is incorrect because digoxin is usually recommended to be taken with food to avoid gastrointestinal upset. Option B is incorrect because antacids can interfere with the absorption of digoxin. Option D is incorrect because contacting the provider for visual changes is important, but monitoring the pulse is crucial for digoxin administration.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and a serum potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperkalemia. In chronic kidney disease, there is decreased renal excretion of potassium, leading to elevated serum potassium levels. Hypokalemia (Choice A) is low potassium levels, which is the opposite finding in this scenario. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) is decreased calcium levels and is not directly related to chronic kidney disease or elevated potassium levels. Hypoglycemia (Choice C) is low blood sugar levels and is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease or high potassium levels.

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