a nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following an open reduction and internal fixation of the right tibia which of the following
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following an open reduction and internal fixation of the right tibia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pallor of the affected extremity could indicate impaired circulation, such as compromised blood flow to the area, which is crucial to monitor postoperatively. This finding suggests potential vascular compromise or decreased blood supply to the extremity, which is a serious concern and should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and intervention. Serous drainage on the dressing is a normal finding in the immediate postoperative period and does not necessarily indicate a complication requiring immediate provider notification. Capillary refill of 2 seconds is within the normal range (less than 3 seconds) and indicates adequate peripheral perfusion. A heart rate of 88/min is also within the normal range for an adult and is not typically a cause for immediate concern postoperatively.

2. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.

3. Which lab value is critical for patients on warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels for patients on warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is essential because it helps assess the clotting tendency of the blood and ensures that patients are within the therapeutic range to prevent both blood clots and excessive bleeding. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice B), sodium levels (Choice C), or platelet count (Choice D) is not specifically required for patients on warfarin therapy and does not directly impact the effectiveness or safety of the medication.

4. A client with asthma asks how to use a peak flow meter. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to perform the peak flow test before using any bronchodilators. This is important because it provides the most accurate baseline measurement of lung function. Choice A is not necessarily crucial for the accuracy of the test. Choice B describes the technique for spirometry, not peak flow meter use. Choice C, while important for tracking trends, is not directly related to the accuracy of the initial measurement.

5. A nurse is reviewing the results of an arterial blood gas analysis of a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which of the following results should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, there is impaired gas exchange, leading to retention of carbon dioxide (CO2) and subsequent respiratory acidosis. A PaCO2 of 55 mm Hg is higher than the normal range (35-45 mm Hg) and is indicative of respiratory acidosis in COPD. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with COPD. PaO2 may be decreased, HCO3 may be elevated to compensate for acidosis, and pH may be lower than 7.35 due to respiratory acidosis in COPD.

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