Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following an open reduction and internal fixation of the right tibia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serous drainage on the dressing
• B. Capillary refill of 2 seconds
• C. Heart rate of 88/min
• D. Pallor of the affected extremity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pallor of the affected extremity could indicate impaired circulation, such as compromised blood flow to the area, which is crucial to monitor postoperatively. This finding suggests potential vascular compromise or decreased blood supply to the extremity, which is a serious concern and should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and intervention. Serous drainage on the dressing is a normal finding in the immediate postoperative period and does not necessarily indicate a complication requiring immediate provider notification. Capillary refill of 2 seconds is within the normal range (less than 3 seconds) and indicates adequate peripheral perfusion. A heart rate of 88/min is also within the normal range for an adult and is not typically a cause for immediate concern postoperatively.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased shortness of breath.
• B. Decreased peripheral edema.
• C. Increased jugular venous distention.
• D. Increased heart rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased peripheral edema. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps in reducing fluid overload in clients with heart failure by increasing urine output. A decrease in peripheral edema indicates that the medication is effectively removing excess fluid from the body. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate an improvement in the client's condition. Increased shortness of breath, increased jugular venous distention, and increased heart rate are all signs of worsening heart failure and would not be expected findings when furosemide is effective.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication history of a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional identify as a contraindication for this client?

• A. Acetaminophen
• B. Ibuprofen
• C. Clopidogrel
• D. Metoprolol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Clopidogrel. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that increases the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin. Acetaminophen (choice A) and metoprolol (choice D) do not have significant interactions with warfarin. Ibuprofen (choice B) is an NSAID that can also increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin, but clopidogrel is a more significant contraindication due to its antiplatelet effects. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be cautious when combining warfarin with clopidogrel due to the increased risk of bleeding compared to other options.

4. A nurse is administering medications to a group of clients. Which of the following occurrences requires the completion of an incident report?

• A. A client receives his antibiotics 2 hours late.
• B. A client vomits within 20 minutes of taking his morning medications.
• C. A client requests his statin to be administered at 2100.
• D. A client asks for pain medication 1 hour early.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When a client receives antibiotics 2 hours late, it constitutes a medication error, requiring the completion of an incident report. Choice B, a client vomiting within 20 minutes of taking medications, does not necessarily require an incident report unless it is suspected to be related to a medication error. Choice C, a client requesting a statin at a specific time, and choice D, a client asking for pain medication an hour early, are not incidents that mandate the completion of an incident report unless there are specific circumstances indicating otherwise.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 15 degrees.
• B. Change the feeding bag every 48 hours.
• C. Administer the feeding through a large-bore syringe.
• D. Flush the tube with 0.9% sodium chloride every 4 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take is to flush the tube with 0.9% sodium chloride every 4 hours. This helps maintain patency and prevents clogs during enteral feedings. Keeping the head of the bed elevated to 15 degrees (Choice A) is important for preventing aspiration but is not directly related to tube care. Changing the feeding bag every 48 hours (Choice B) is not a standard practice as the bag should be changed every 24 hours to prevent bacterial growth. Administering the feeding through a large-bore syringe (Choice C) is incorrect as enteral feedings should be given through an appropriate feeding pump for accuracy and safety.

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