Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following an open reduction and internal fixation of the right tibia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serous drainage on the dressing
• B. Capillary refill of 2 seconds
• C. Heart rate of 88/min
• D. Pallor of the affected extremity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pallor of the affected extremity could indicate impaired circulation, such as compromised blood flow to the area, which is crucial to monitor postoperatively. This finding suggests potential vascular compromise or decreased blood supply to the extremity, which is a serious concern and should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and intervention. Serous drainage on the dressing is a normal finding in the immediate postoperative period and does not necessarily indicate a complication requiring immediate provider notification. Capillary refill of 2 seconds is within the normal range (less than 3 seconds) and indicates adequate peripheral perfusion. A heart rate of 88/min is also within the normal range for an adult and is not typically a cause for immediate concern postoperatively.

2. A client is receiving discharge teaching about a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should take this medication with milk.
• B. I should expect my stools to turn black.
• C. I should avoid eating oranges while taking this medication.
• D. I will take this medication on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When taking ferrous sulfate, clients should expect their stools to turn black, which is a normal side effect due to the iron content. Choice A is incorrect because ferrous sulfate should not be taken with milk as it can decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because vitamin C-rich foods like oranges can actually enhance the absorption of iron. Choice D is incorrect because ferrous sulfate is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption.

3. A client has a new diagnosis of hypertension, and a nurse is teaching about dietary management. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Limit your sodium intake to 2,000 mg per day.
• B. Increase your intake of high-fat foods.
• C. Increase your intake of green, leafy vegetables.
• D. Limit your potassium intake to 3,000 mg per day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Limit your sodium intake to 2,000 mg per day. Limiting sodium intake helps manage hypertension by reducing fluid retention and lowering blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect because increasing intake of high-fat foods can worsen hypertension by contributing to weight gain and other cardiovascular risks. Choice C is incorrect as green, leafy vegetables are beneficial for hypertension due to their high potassium and other nutrient content. Choice D is incorrect as limiting potassium intake is typically not recommended for hypertension management unless specified by a healthcare provider.

4. A client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube needs preventive measures to avoid aspiration. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees.
• B. Check gastric residual volumes every 4 hours.
• C. Administer the feeding at room temperature.
• D. Flush the feeding tube with 20 mL of water every 8 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check gastric residual volumes every 4 hours. This action helps prevent aspiration by ensuring the stomach is emptying properly, reducing the risk of reflux and aspiration. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees can help prevent aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the risk of regurgitation. Administering the feeding at room temperature is important for patient comfort but does not directly prevent aspiration. Flushing the feeding tube with water every 8 hours is important for tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial in patients on furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not commonly linked to furosemide therapy; therefore, they are incorrect choices.

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