ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Peripheral edema.
- B. JVD.
- C. Crackles in the lungs.
- D. Hypotension.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: JVD. Jugular venous distention (JVD) is a common finding in right-sided heart failure due to fluid overload. This occurs because the right side of the heart is unable to effectively pump blood, leading to congestion and increased venous pressure, which is manifested as JVD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Peripheral edema (choice A) is more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure. Crackles in the lungs (choice C) are indicative of pulmonary edema, often seen in left-sided heart failure. Hypotension (choice D) is not typically seen in right-sided heart failure, as it is more commonly associated with conditions like shock or severe dehydration.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action should be included?
- A. Encourage the client to floss daily.
- B. Remove fresh flowers from the client's room.
- C. Provide the client with a stool softener.
- D. Avoid serving the client raw vegetables.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action to include in the care plan for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Providing a stool softener helps prevent straining during bowel movements, reducing the risk of bleeding episodes. Encouraging the client to floss daily (choice A) is important for oral hygiene but is not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (choice B) is more relevant for clients with neutropenia to reduce the risk of infection. Avoiding serving the client raw vegetables (choice D) is important for clients with compromised immune systems but is not specifically related to thrombocytopenia.
3. A client who is 1 day postpartum plans to breastfeed. Which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching provided by the nurse?
- A. I will breastfeed every 4 hours.
- B. I will feed my baby from each breast for 5 minutes.
- C. I will use both breasts at each feeding.
- D. I will pump my breasts if my baby does not wake up to feed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Using both breasts at each feeding helps ensure adequate milk production and consumption. Option A is incorrect because breastfeeding should be done on demand rather than following a strict schedule. Option B is incorrect as limiting feeding time to 5 minutes per breast may not provide the baby with enough milk. Option D is also incorrect as pumping should not replace direct breastfeeding unless there is a specific medical reason to do so.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride.
- B. Verify the client's blood type and Rh factor.
- C. Administer the blood over 8 hours.
- D. Use a 22-gauge needle for venous access.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to verify the client's blood type and Rh factor. This action is crucial to ensure that the correct blood is administered, matching the client's blood type and Rh factor, which helps prevent transfusion reactions. Priming the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice A) is not directly related to ensuring the correct blood product is administered. Administering the blood over 8 hours (Choice C) is not the standard practice for packed RBCs, which are usually given over a shorter period. Using a 22-gauge needle for venous access (Choice D) is not specific to the preparation for administering packed RBCs.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL
- B. Serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L
- C. Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
- D. Platelet count of 250,000/mm³
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a complication that should be reported in clients receiving TPN. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac and neuromuscular complications. The other options are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns for a client receiving TPN. A blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL, serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L, and platelet count of 250,000/mm³ are all considered normal values and do not require immediate intervention.
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