Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Peripheral edema.
• B. JVD.
• C. Crackles in the lungs.
• D. Hypotension.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: JVD. Jugular venous distention (JVD) is a common finding in right-sided heart failure due to fluid overload. This occurs because the right side of the heart is unable to effectively pump blood, leading to congestion and increased venous pressure, which is manifested as JVD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Peripheral edema (choice A) is more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure. Crackles in the lungs (choice C) are indicative of pulmonary edema, often seen in left-sided heart failure. Hypotension (choice D) is not typically seen in right-sided heart failure, as it is more commonly associated with conditions like shock or severe dehydration.

2. A client is immediately postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following positions should the nurse maintain for the client?

• A. Supine with legs extended
• B. Semi-Fowler's position with legs bent
• C. Lateral position with an abduction pillow between the legs
• D. Prone with legs elevated

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct position for a client immediately postoperative following a hip arthroplasty is the lateral position with an abduction pillow between the legs. This position helps prevent dislocation of the hip prosthesis and maintains proper alignment of the hip joint. Supine position with legs extended (Choice A) may put stress on the hip joint, Semi-Fowler's position with legs bent (Choice B) may not provide adequate support and alignment, and prone position with legs elevated (Choice D) is not recommended after hip arthroplasty as it can compromise the surgical site and increase the risk of complications.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Client reports taking warfarin
• B. Client has a history of hypertension
• C. Client ate a light breakfast 2 hours prior
• D. Client reports a history of smoking 10 cigarettes a day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding during surgery. It is crucial for the provider to be informed about the client taking warfarin to adjust the treatment plan accordingly. Choices B, C, and D are not as critical to report for surgical planning. A history of hypertension (B) is important but may not require immediate intervention for surgery. Eating a light breakfast 2 hours prior (C) is a normal preoperative instruction. Smoking history (D) is relevant for overall health assessment but is not as urgent as the use of warfarin before surgery.

4. Which lab value should be monitored in patients receiving heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor aPTT
• B. Monitor INR
• C. Monitor platelet count
• D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT in patients receiving heparin therapy. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial to assess the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin and to prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring INR (Choice B) is more relevant for patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count (Choice C) monitoring is essential for detecting heparin-induced thrombocytopenia rather than assessing heparin therapy itself. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice D) is not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of vancomycin IV to a client who has a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication over 15 minutes.
• B. Monitor the client's urine output every 8 hours.
• C. Check the client's creatinine level before administering the medication.
• D. Assess the client for a history of allergies to antibiotics.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to check the client's creatinine level before administering vancomycin. Vancomycin is known to be nephrotoxic, so assessing the client's renal function before administering the medication is crucial to prevent further kidney damage. Administering the medication over 15 minutes (Choice A) is not the priority in this scenario as renal function assessment takes precedence. Monitoring urine output (Choice B) is important for assessing renal function but checking creatinine level directly provides more accurate information. Assessing for allergies to antibiotics (Choice D) is also important but not as essential as checking the creatinine level due to the nephrotoxic nature of vancomycin.

Similar Questions