ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Peripheral edema.
- B. JVD.
- C. Crackles in the lungs.
- D. Hypotension.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: JVD. Jugular venous distention (JVD) is a common finding in right-sided heart failure due to fluid overload. This occurs because the right side of the heart is unable to effectively pump blood, leading to congestion and increased venous pressure, which is manifested as JVD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Peripheral edema (choice A) is more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure. Crackles in the lungs (choice C) are indicative of pulmonary edema, often seen in left-sided heart failure. Hypotension (choice D) is not typically seen in right-sided heart failure, as it is more commonly associated with conditions like shock or severe dehydration.
2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has had a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid sitting in a chair for longer than 30 minutes.
- B. I will avoid crossing my legs when sitting.
- C. I will bend at the hips to pick up items from the floor.
- D. I will avoid using a raised toilet seat.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because bending at the hips can dislocate the hip joint in clients who have had a total hip arthroplasty. This movement should be avoided to prevent complications post-surgery. Choices A, B, and D are all correct statements for a client who has had a total hip arthroplasty. Avoiding prolonged sitting, crossing legs, and using a raised toilet seat are all appropriate measures to ensure proper healing and prevent complications.
3. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Take this medication 1 hour before meals.
- C. Avoid potassium supplements while taking this medication.
- D. You may experience a persistent, dry cough while taking this medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Captopril is known to cause a persistent, dry cough as a common side effect. Instructing the client about this potential side effect is crucial for their awareness. Choices A and B are incorrect because captopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because captopril can lead to hyperkalemia, so potassium supplements may be necessary in some cases.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is a common concern for patients on loop diuretics?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypokalemia. Loop diuretics can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This imbalance is a common concern because potassium plays a vital role in various physiological functions, including maintaining proper heart function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because loop diuretics typically do not cause hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, or hypercalcemia.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on diuretics?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Patients on diuretics are at risk of developing hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion by the kidneys. Hypokalemia can lead to serious consequences such as cardiac arrhythmias. Hyponatremia (choice B) is an imbalance of sodium levels and is not typically associated with diuretic use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is the opposite condition where potassium levels are elevated and is less common in patients on diuretics. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is an excess of calcium in the blood and is not directly related to diuretic use. Therefore, monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial in patients taking diuretics.
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