Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent aspiration?

• A. Monitor gastric residuals every 4 hours.
• B. Position the client in a semi-Fowler's position.
• C. Check for tube placement by auscultating air after feeding.
• D. Warm the formula to body temperature before feeding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring gastric residuals every 4 hours is essential to assess the stomach's ability to empty properly, reducing the risk of aspiration. It helps in determining if the feedings are being tolerated by the client and if adjustments are needed in the feeding regimen. Positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position helps prevent reflux and aspiration by promoting proper digestion and emptying of the stomach contents. Checking for tube placement by auscultating air after feeding confirms correct tube placement in the stomach. Warming the formula to body temperature before feeding enhances client comfort but does not directly prevent aspiration. Therefore, the correct answer is to monitor gastric residuals to prevent aspiration, as it directly assesses the stomach's ability to empty properly and the tolerance of the feedings.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Decreased creatinine
• C. Increased potassium
• D. Increased calcium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.

3. A healthcare professional is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• B. Take aspirin for pain relief.
• C. Consume a consistent amount of green leafy vegetables.
• D. Use an electric razor when shaving.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Consuming a consistent amount of green leafy vegetables is important for clients taking warfarin as these foods contain vitamin K, which can affect the medication's effectiveness. Maintaining a consistent intake helps stabilize the International Normalized Ratio (INR) levels, which is crucial for monitoring the blood's ability to clot properly while on warfarin therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding grapefruit juice is generally recommended with certain medications due to its interaction with liver enzymes, which is not directly related to warfarin. Taking aspirin along with warfarin can increase the risk of bleeding. Using an electric razor when shaving is a safety precaution for those at risk of bleeding, but it is not directly related to the medication warfarin.

4. When assessing a client with diabetes mellitus experiencing DKA, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Tremors
• B. Urine retention
• C. Kussmaul respirations
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are a type of deep and labored breathing pattern associated with severe metabolic acidosis, commonly observed in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). In DKA, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, resulting in Kussmaul respirations. This helps eliminate excess carbon dioxide and reduce the acidity of the blood. Tremors (Choice A) are not typically associated with DKA. Urine retention (Choice B) is not a common finding in DKA; in fact, clients with DKA often have polyuria due to the osmotic diuresis caused by high blood glucose levels. Bradypnea (Choice D), which is abnormally slow breathing rate, is not a characteristic finding in DKA where the respiratory rate is usually increased to compensate for metabolic acidosis.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has fluid volume excess. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Crackles in the lungs
• D. Dry mucous membranes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Crackles in the lungs are indicative of fluid accumulation in the alveoli, which is a characteristic finding in clients with fluid volume excess. The crackling sound occurs due to the presence of excess fluid in the lungs, impairing normal ventilation and gas exchange. Monitoring for crackles is essential for early detection and management of fluid overload in clients. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in fluid volume excess, hypervolemia leads to increased blood pressure (not hypotension), compensatory tachycardia (not bradycardia), and moist mucous membranes (not dry).

Similar Questions