Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has anemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Pallor.
• C. Hypertension.
• D. Jaundice.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pallor is a common finding in clients with anemia due to decreased hemoglobin levels. Anemia leads to reduced oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood, resulting in pale skin and mucous membranes, which is known as pallor. Bradycardia, hypertension, and jaundice are typically not associated with anemia.

2. A client with celiac disease is being taught about dietary management. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should avoid foods that contain gluten.
• B. I should increase my intake of foods high in gluten.
• C. I should avoid foods that contain lactose.
• D. I should increase my intake of foods high in lactose.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I should avoid foods that contain gluten.' Celiac disease requires the avoidance of gluten-containing foods to manage symptoms and prevent complications. Gluten is found in wheat, barley, and rye. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the dietary requirements for managing celiac disease. Increasing intake of foods high in gluten or lactose would be detrimental for someone with celiac disease.

3. During an admission interview, a nurse is assessing a client's personal identity. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask?

• A. What is your marital status?
• B. How would you describe yourself?
• C. Are you employed?
• D. Do you have any children?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing personal identity, it is important to ask questions that prompt clients to describe themselves. Question B, 'How would you describe yourself?' is the most appropriate as it allows the client to share their own perceptions and characteristics, aiding in understanding their personal identity. Choices A, C, and D are more focused on specific personal details such as marital status, employment status, and parental status, which do not directly contribute to understanding personal identity.

4. In an emergency department, a provider is assessing a client with an acute head injury following a motor-vehicle crash. Which of the following findings should be prioritized?

• A. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13
• B. Clear fluid leaking from the nose
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Anisocoria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority finding is the clear fluid leaking from the nose, which could indicate a cerebrospinal fluid leak and potential brain injury. This requires immediate attention to assess for possible cerebrospinal fluid leak, which is a serious complication of head trauma and needs prompt intervention to prevent further complications. While a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 may indicate a mild alteration in consciousness, it is not as urgent as assessing for a cerebrospinal fluid leak. Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms after head injuries but do not take precedence over assessing for a potential cerebrospinal fluid leak. Anisocoria (unequal pupils) is also important to note but is not as urgent as identifying a possible cerebrospinal fluid leak in this scenario.

5. While assessing a client with fluid volume deficit, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Increased skin turgor
• C. Dry mucous membranes
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dry mucous membranes are a classic clinical manifestation of fluid volume deficit. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid intake or excessive fluid loss, resulting in decreased moisture in the mucous membranes. Bradycardia, increased skin turgor, and hypertension are not typically associated with fluid volume deficit. Bradycardia is more commonly seen in conditions like hypothyroidism or increased intracranial pressure. Increased skin turgor is a sign of dehydration, not deficit. Hypertension is not a typical finding in fluid volume deficit.

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