a nurse is assessing a client who has meningitis which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Fundamentals of Nursing

1. A client with meningitis is being assessed by a healthcare provider. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A petechial rash is a characteristic finding in clients with meningitis, indicating small, pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin. This rash results from the infection's impact on the blood vessels. Petechiae are important to recognize as they can help differentiate meningitis from other conditions with similar symptoms. Brudzinski’s sign, neck stiffness, and positive Kernig’s sign are more common physical exam findings in meningitis. Flaccid neck muscles and hypoactive deep tendon reflexes are not typically associated with meningitis.

2. What is the primary purpose of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) is to ensure the confidentiality and security of health information. HIPAA establishes national standards to protect individuals' medical records and other personal health information. By safeguarding the privacy of health data, HIPAA aims to maintain the integrity and confidentiality of sensitive patient information, preventing unauthorized access and disclosure. This focus on privacy and security helps build trust between patients and healthcare providers, ensuring that personal health information is handled responsibly and ethically.

3. A client has a new prescription for a potassium-sparing diuretic. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients on potassium-sparing diuretics need to avoid high-potassium foods to prevent hyperkalemia. Apples are a low-potassium fruit, making them a suitable recommendation for clients on this type of diuretic. Bananas, oranges, and spinach are high-potassium foods that should be avoided by clients taking potassium-sparing diuretics to prevent complications such as hyperkalemia.

4. A client is receiving continuous enteral feedings. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Flush the feeding tube every 4 hours. Flushing the feeding tube every 4 hours is essential to maintain patency and prevent clogging, ensuring the client receives the prescribed enteral nutrition without interruption. This intervention helps prevent complications such as tube occlusion. Monitoring intake and output is important for assessing the client's hydration status but does not directly address tube patency. Measuring the client's temperature is essential for monitoring for signs of infection but is not directly related to tube maintenance. Changing the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours is important for infection control but does not address tube patency.

5. When planning care for a client with a pressure ulcer, which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a pressure ulcer is to use a transparent film dressing. This dressing provides a protective barrier against external contaminants while allowing for wound inspection, promoting healing. Massaging the reddened area can cause further damage to the skin and should be avoided. Donut-shaped cushions can increase pressure on the ulcer site rather than alleviate it. Repositioning the client every 2 hours is a preventive measure for pressure ulcers, but once an ulcer has developed, using a transparent film dressing is a more appropriate intervention to facilitate healing and protect the wound site.

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