Nursing Elites

1. A client with meningitis is being assessed by a healthcare provider. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

• A. Negative Brudzinski’s sign.
• B. Flaccid neck muscles.
• C. Petechial rash.
• D. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A petechial rash is a characteristic finding in clients with meningitis, indicating small, pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin. This rash results from the infection's impact on the blood vessels. Petechiae are important to recognize as they can help differentiate meningitis from other conditions with similar symptoms. Brudzinski’s sign, neck stiffness, and positive Kernig’s sign are more common physical exam findings in meningitis. Flaccid neck muscles and hypoactive deep tendon reflexes are not typically associated with meningitis.

2. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should be taken by the healthcare provider?

• A. Discard the first voiding.
• B. Keep the urine at room temperature.
• C. Collect the first voiding.
• D. Keep the urine in a sterile container.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discarding the first voiding is necessary when initiating a 24-hour urine collection to ensure that the collection starts with an empty bladder. This step helps in obtaining an accurate measurement of substances excreted over the 24-hour period without any carryover from the previous voids. Keeping the urine at room temperature or in a sterile container is not specific to the initiation of the collection. Therefore, the correct action is to discard the first voiding. Choice B is incorrect because keeping urine at room temperature is important for some tests, but it is not specific to the initiation of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice C is incorrect because collecting the first voiding would lead to inaccurate results as the bladder is not empty at the start. Choice D is incorrect because while keeping urine in a sterile container is generally a good practice, it is not a specific step for initiating a 24-hour urine collection.

3. A client with gout is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should increase my intake of purine-rich foods.
• B. I should decrease my intake of purine-rich foods.
• C. I should increase my intake of sodium-rich foods.
• D. I should decrease my intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Decreasing the intake of purine-rich foods is essential in managing gout as purines break down into uric acid, contributing to gout symptoms. Increasing purine-rich foods would exacerbate the condition by increasing uric acid levels. Therefore, choice A is incorrect. Choices C and D are also incorrect as increasing sodium-rich foods (choice C) is not recommended for gout management, and decreasing potassium-rich foods (choice D) is unrelated to gout.

4. A client has a new diagnosis of hypothyroidism, and a nurse is providing dietary management education. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You should increase your intake of iodine-rich foods.
• B. You should decrease your intake of iodine-rich foods.
• C. You should avoid foods that contain lactose.
• D. You should increase your intake of dairy products.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hypothyroidism, increasing intake of iodine-rich foods is beneficial as iodine is essential for the production of thyroid hormones. This helps to support thyroid function in individuals with hypothyroidism. Therefore, advising the client to increase their intake of iodine-rich foods aligns with the recommended dietary management for hypothyroidism. Choice B is incorrect because decreasing iodine-rich foods could lead to further deficiency in individuals with hypothyroidism. Choice C is not directly related to hypothyroidism and lactose intolerance is a separate issue. Choice D is incorrect as increasing dairy products is not a specific recommendation for hypothyroidism unless the client has a deficiency of calcium or vitamin D, which should be assessed separately.

5. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who has a latex allergy. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider include in the plan?

• A. Use latex gloves without powder.
• B. Place a sign on the client's door.
• C. Apply latex gloves before donning gloves.
• D. Avoid using latex equipment.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing a sign on the client’s door is crucial in alerting healthcare providers to the client's latex allergy, helping them avoid using latex products, which can trigger an allergic reaction. This precaution can prevent accidental exposure and ensure the client's safety during care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Using latex gloves without powder (Choice A) is a good practice, but the question is specifically asking about an action related to the client's latex allergy, not the healthcare provider's protection. Applying latex gloves before donning gloves (Choice C) is unnecessary and could exacerbate the client's latex allergy. Avoiding using plastic equipment (Choice D) is not related to preventing exposure to latex, which is the primary concern in this scenario.

Similar Questions