ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals of Nursing
1. A client with meningitis is being assessed by a healthcare provider. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?
- A. Negative Brudzinski’s sign.
- B. Flaccid neck muscles.
- C. Petechial rash.
- D. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A petechial rash is a characteristic finding in clients with meningitis, indicating small, pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin. This rash results from the infection's impact on the blood vessels. Petechiae are important to recognize as they can help differentiate meningitis from other conditions with similar symptoms. Brudzinski’s sign, neck stiffness, and positive Kernig’s sign are more common physical exam findings in meningitis. Flaccid neck muscles and hypoactive deep tendon reflexes are not typically associated with meningitis.
2. A client receives education on dietary management for ulcerative colitis from a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You should increase your intake of high-fiber foods.
- B. You should avoid foods containing lactose.
- C. You should decrease your intake of dairy products.
- D. You should increase your intake of dairy products.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include in the teaching is to decrease the intake of dairy products. This is because reducing the intake of dairy products is beneficial in managing symptoms of ulcerative colitis. Dairy products can aggravate symptoms due to their lactose content, thus advising the client to decrease their consumption can help alleviate discomfort and promote better management of the condition.\nChoice A is incorrect because increasing high-fiber foods may worsen symptoms in some individuals with ulcerative colitis.\nChoice B is incorrect as while it is advised to avoid foods containing lactose, this alone does not encompass the full dietary management for ulcerative colitis.\nChoice D is incorrect as increasing the intake of dairy products can exacerbate symptoms in individuals with ulcerative colitis due to their lactose content.
3. In an emergency department, a provider is assessing a client with an acute head injury following a motor-vehicle crash. Which of the following findings should be prioritized?
- A. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13
- B. Clear fluid leaking from the nose
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Anisocoria
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority finding is the clear fluid leaking from the nose, which could indicate a cerebrospinal fluid leak and potential brain injury. This requires immediate attention to assess for possible cerebrospinal fluid leak, which is a serious complication of head trauma and needs prompt intervention to prevent further complications. While a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 may indicate a mild alteration in consciousness, it is not as urgent as assessing for a cerebrospinal fluid leak. Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms after head injuries but do not take precedence over assessing for a potential cerebrospinal fluid leak. Anisocoria (unequal pupils) is also important to note but is not as urgent as identifying a possible cerebrospinal fluid leak in this scenario.
4. A client with a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching?
- A. Increase your intake of protein-rich foods.
- B. Decrease your intake of phosphorus-rich foods.
- C. Avoid foods that contain lactose.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, decreasing the intake of phosphorus-rich foods is essential as impaired kidney function can lead to difficulty in excreting phosphorus, causing an imbalance. This can result in bone and heart complications. Therefore, educating the client to reduce phosphorus intake is crucial for managing the disease and preventing further complications. Option A is incorrect because excessive protein intake can burden the kidneys. Option C is not directly related to the management of chronic kidney disease. Option D is also incorrect as potassium intake may need to be limited in certain stages of kidney disease.
5. A client with a new diagnosis of osteoporosis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching?
- A. You should increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.
- B. You should decrease your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- C. You should avoid foods that contain vitamin D.
- D. You should increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.' Increasing intake of calcium-rich foods is essential for managing osteoporosis because calcium is necessary for bone health and density. Adequate calcium intake can help prevent further bone loss and reduce the risk of fractures in individuals with osteoporosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreasing intake of potassium-rich foods is not necessary for osteoporosis management. Avoiding foods that contain vitamin D is counterproductive since vitamin D is essential for calcium absorption. Increasing intake of high-sodium foods is not recommended as it can contribute to bone loss and negatively impact bone health.
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