Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new diagnosis of GERD. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching about dietary management?

• A. You should increase your intake of high-fat foods.
• B. You should decrease your intake of high-fat foods.
• C. You should avoid foods that contain gluten.
• D. You should increase your intake of dairy products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease the intake of high-fat foods. High-fat foods can exacerbate symptoms of GERD by delaying stomach emptying and increasing the risk of reflux. By reducing high-fat foods in the diet, the client can help manage symptoms of GERD and decrease the likelihood of complications. Choice A is incorrect because increasing high-fat foods can worsen GERD symptoms. Choice C is unrelated as gluten is not a specific concern for GERD. Choice D is incorrect as increasing dairy products may lead to increased fat intake, which is not recommended for GERD.

2. A client is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30°
• B. Flush the tube with 50 mL of water every 2 hours
• C. Replace the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours
• D. Check the client's gastric residual every 8 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30° is the correct action to take when a client is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. This position helps prevent aspiration of the enteral feedings into the lungs, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Additionally, elevating the head of the bed promotes proper digestion and absorption of the feedings by utilizing gravity to facilitate movement into the stomach and through the gastrointestinal tract. Flushing the tube with water every 2 hours (Choice B) is not necessary for continuous feedings and may disrupt the feeding schedule. Replacing the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours (Choice C) is not the standard recommendation unless there are specific concerns or complications. Checking the client's gastric residual every 8 hours (Choice D) is important but not the immediate action needed to prevent aspiration during enteral feedings.

3. When assessing a client with chronic pain, which of the following is the most reliable indicator of the client's pain?

• A. The client's vital signs.
• B. The client's self-report of pain.
• C. The client's body language.
• D. The client's medical history.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's self-report of pain is the most reliable indicator of pain. Pain is a subjective experience, and the client's self-report provides direct insight into their perception of pain intensity, quality, and impact on daily life. Vital signs, body language, and medical history can offer additional information but may not accurately reflect the client's actual pain experience. Therefore, relying on the client's self-report ensures a more accurate assessment of their pain and helps in tailoring appropriate interventions and treatment plans.

4. A client has been on bed rest for 3 days. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to ambulate?

• A. The client uses a walker to move from the bed to the chair.
• B. The client has a strong cough.
• C. The client can bear weight on both legs.
• D. The client has a normal respiratory rate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The ability to bear weight on both legs indicates muscle strength and stability necessary for ambulation. This skill is crucial for the client to support their body weight and move independently when standing or walking. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because using a walker, having a strong cough, or having a normal respiratory rate do not directly indicate the readiness to ambulate. The key factor in determining readiness for ambulation is the client's ability to bear weight on both legs, demonstrating the necessary strength for standing and walking.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Decreased creatinine
• C. Increased potassium
• D. Increased calcium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.

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