a nurse is preparing to administer an iv medication to a client who reports a latex allergy which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A nurse is preparing to administer an IV medication to a client who reports a latex allergy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when preparing to administer an IV medication to a client with a latex allergy is to administer the medication through a latex-free IV port. This measure helps prevent allergic reactions in clients with a known latex allergy. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice A) is not directly related to preventing a latex allergy reaction. Using non-latex gloves (Choice B) is important for protecting the nurse or caregiver from latex exposure but does not prevent the client's allergic reaction. While using latex-free syringes (Choice C) is a good practice, ensuring the IV port is latex-free is more crucial in preventing an allergic response in the client.

2. How should fluid overload in a patient with heart failure be managed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering diuretics is the appropriate management for fluid overload in a patient with heart failure. Diuretics help to reduce fluid retention by increasing urine output, thereby alleviating the fluid overload. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing fluid intake would worsen the condition by adding more fluid to an already overloaded system. Providing oral fluids is not specific enough to address the excess fluid in the body, and chest physiotherapy is not indicated for managing fluid overload in heart failure patients.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has osteoporosis about preventing fractures. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to perform weight-bearing exercises regularly. Weight-bearing exercises help maintain bone density and reduce the risk of fractures in clients with osteoporosis. Increasing intake of calcium-rich foods (Choice A) is also beneficial for bone health. Avoiding weight-bearing exercises (Choice B) is incorrect as these exercises are essential for strengthening bones. Avoiding calcium supplements (Choice D) may not be necessary if the client's dietary intake is inadequate.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lipsmacking is a common sign of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements such as lipsmacking, tongue protrusion, and facial grimacing. Agranulocytosis (choice B) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specifically associated with haloperidol. Clang association (choice C) is a form of disorganized speech seen in conditions like schizophrenia but is not a side effect of haloperidol. Alopecia (choice D) refers to hair loss and is not a common long-term side effect of haloperidol.

5. Which lab value should be monitored in patients receiving heparin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT in patients receiving heparin therapy. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial to assess the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin and to prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring INR (Choice B) is more relevant for patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count (Choice C) monitoring is essential for detecting heparin-induced thrombocytopenia rather than assessing heparin therapy itself. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice D) is not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.

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