ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Serum sodium.
- B. Serum glucose.
- C. Serum potassium.
- D. Serum calcium.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, meaning it can lead to potassium loss in the body. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of furosemide and prevent hypokalemia. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not directly affect sodium, glucose, or calcium levels in the same way it impacts potassium levels.
2. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. You should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- B. You should monitor for signs of infection.
- C. Take this medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
- D. Take this medication with a full glass of water.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include when teaching a client taking clopidogrel is to monitor for signs of infection. Clopidogrel affects platelet levels and can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because a compromised immune system can make the client more susceptible to infections. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because clopidogrel is not directly linked to alcohol restrictions, food requirements, or specific water intake instructions.
3. A client in active labor is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Contractions lasting 80 seconds.
- B. FHR baseline of 170/min.
- C. Early decelerations in the FHR.
- D. Temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a baseline FHR of 170/min indicates fetal tachycardia, which needs further evaluation. Choice A about contractions lasting 80 seconds is within the normal range for active labor. Choice C, early decelerations in the FHR, are generally considered benign and do not require immediate reporting. Choice D, a temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), falls within normal limits for a laboring client and does not warrant immediate reporting.
4. A client with a history of depression and experiencing a situational crisis is being assessed by a nurse. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Notify the client's support system.
- B. Help the client identify personal strengths.
- C. Confirm the client's perception of the event.
- D. Teach the client relaxation techniques.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with a history of depression is experiencing a situational crisis, the first action the nurse should take is to notify the client's support system. This is crucial as the client may require immediate assistance and support. While helping the client identify personal strengths and confirming the client's perception of the event are important aspects of the assessment and intervention process, notifying the support system takes priority in ensuring the client's safety and well-being. Teaching relaxation techniques may be beneficial but addressing the client's immediate crisis through support system notification is the most appropriate initial action.
5. While caring for a client receiving an opioid analgesic for pain management, which assessment should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Monitor the client's urinary output.
- B. Check the client's blood pressure.
- C. Assess the client for constipation.
- D. Monitor the client's respiratory rate.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's respiratory rate. When a client is receiving opioids, the priority assessment is the respiratory rate since opioids can lead to respiratory depression. Monitoring urinary output, blood pressure, and constipation are also important but not the priority in this scenario.
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