ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is preparing to administer a rectal suppository to a client. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the client to hold their breath as long as possible.
- B. Insert the suppository just past the anal sphincter.
- C. Lubricate the suppository and insert it 1.5 cm (0.6 in) into the rectum.
- D. Place the client in a Sims' position before inserting the suppository.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering a rectal suppository is to place the client in a Sims' position. This position helps facilitate the proper administration of the suppository by allowing better access to the rectum. Encouraging the client to hold their breath as long as possible (Choice A) is unnecessary and not related to the administration of a rectal suppository. Inserting the suppository just past the anal sphincter (Choice B) is incorrect as it may not reach the rectum where it needs to be placed. Lubricating the suppository and inserting it 1.5 cm into the rectum (Choice C) is incorrect as the suppository needs to be inserted deeper into the rectum for proper absorption.
2. What is the best way to assess a patient's respiratory function after surgery?
- A. Check oxygen saturation
- B. Auscultate lung sounds
- C. Check for abnormal breath sounds
- D. Check skin color
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to check oxygen saturation. This is because checking oxygen saturation provides a direct measure of how well the patient is oxygenating post-surgery. It helps healthcare providers assess if the patient is receiving enough oxygen to meet their body's needs. Auscultating lung sounds (choice B) is important to assess respiratory function but may not provide an immediate indication of oxygenation status. Checking for abnormal breath sounds (choice C) is relevant but does not directly assess oxygenation levels. Checking skin color (choice D) can provide some information about oxygenation, but it is not as precise or direct as measuring oxygen saturation.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?
- A. Hyperlipidemia.
- B. COPD.
- C. Seizure disorder.
- D. Hyponatremia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, which is an elevated level of lipids (fats) in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for angina. High levels of lipids can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where fatty deposits build up in the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of angina. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is not directly linked to an increased risk of angina. COPD primarily affects the lungs and is not a known risk factor for angina. Choice C, Seizure disorder, and Choice D, Hyponatremia (low sodium levels), are also not typically associated with an increased risk of angina. While medical conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and smoking are other common risk factors for angina, hyperlipidemia is specifically known for its impact on blood vessels, making it a key risk factor to identify in a client's medical history.
4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Glucose 180 mg/dL
- B. Sodium 136 mEq/L
- C. Potassium 3.8 mEq/L
- D. Albumin 3.5 g/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Glucose 180 mg/dL." Elevated glucose levels in a client receiving TPN may indicate hyperglycemia, which can lead to complications such as osmotic diuresis, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. It is essential to report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns related to TPN administration.
5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for insulin glargine. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. This insulin has a peak effect of 2 to 4 hours.
- B. This insulin has a duration of action of 24 hours.
- C. This insulin is given before meals to control your blood sugar.
- D. You should avoid eating 30 minutes before or after taking this insulin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Insulin glargine has a 24-hour duration of action, making it suitable for once-daily dosing for long-term blood sugar control. Choice A is incorrect as insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin with no pronounced peak effect in its action profile. Choice C is incorrect as insulin glargine is usually given at the same time each day regardless of meals. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to avoid eating before or after taking insulin glargine.
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