ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is preparing to administer a rectal suppository to a client. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the client to hold their breath as long as possible.
- B. Insert the suppository just past the anal sphincter.
- C. Lubricate the suppository and insert it 1.5 cm (0.6 in) into the rectum.
- D. Place the client in a Sims' position before inserting the suppository.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering a rectal suppository is to place the client in a Sims' position. This position helps facilitate the proper administration of the suppository by allowing better access to the rectum. Encouraging the client to hold their breath as long as possible (Choice A) is unnecessary and not related to the administration of a rectal suppository. Inserting the suppository just past the anal sphincter (Choice B) is incorrect as it may not reach the rectum where it needs to be placed. Lubricating the suppository and inserting it 1.5 cm into the rectum (Choice C) is incorrect as the suppository needs to be inserted deeper into the rectum for proper absorption.
2. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with a meal.
- B. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- C. Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight.
- D. Limit your intake of calcium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so increasing potassium-rich foods helps prevent hypokalemia. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is unrelated to furosemide therapy. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to limit calcium-rich foods while taking furosemide.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a Clostridium difficile infection. Which of the following precautions should the nurse implement?
- A. Place the client in a negative pressure room
- B. Wear an N95 respirator mask when entering the room
- C. Wear a gown and gloves when providing care to the client
- D. Place a face mask on the client
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct precaution to implement when caring for a client with Clostridium difficile infection is to wear a gown and gloves when providing care. Clostridium difficile is primarily spread through contact with feces, so wearing personal protective equipment like gowns and gloves is crucial in preventing the spread of the infection. Placing the client in a negative pressure room (Choice A) is not necessary for Clostridium difficile. While wearing an N95 respirator mask (Choice B) is important for airborne precautions, it is not required for Clostridium difficile. Placing a face mask on the client (Choice D) is not a standard precaution for preventing the spread of Clostridium difficile.
4. A client has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. ''I will take this medication at bedtime to avoid nausea.''
- B. ''I should take this medication with a full glass of water in the morning.''
- C. ''I should avoid eating foods that contain iodine.''
- D. ''I should take this medication with food to improve absorption.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Metformin should be taken with a full glass of water in the morning to improve absorption and prevent gastrointestinal upset. Choice A is incorrect because metformin is not typically taken at bedtime. Choice C is unrelated to metformin therapy. Choice D is incorrect because metformin is actually better absorbed when taken with or after meals.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a gastric bypass. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 78/min
- B. Oxygen saturation of 95%
- C. Urine output of 30 mL/hr
- D. Serosanguineous wound drainage
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a postoperative client, a urine output of 30 mL/hr is a concerning finding as it indicates oliguria, which may suggest dehydration or kidney impairment. Adequate urine output is essential for monitoring renal function and overall fluid status. A heart rate of 78/min is within the normal range for an adult. An oxygen saturation of 95% is acceptable and indicates adequate oxygenation. Serosanguineous wound drainage is expected in the early postoperative period and is not a cause for immediate concern unless it becomes excessive or changes character.
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