a nurse is planning assignments for a licensed practical nurse lpn during a staffing shortage which client should be delegated to the lpn
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A nurse is planning assignments for a licensed practical nurse (LPN) during a staffing shortage. Which client should be delegated to the LPN?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client postoperative following a bowel resection with an NG tube set to continuous suction requires routine postoperative care, which an LPN can manage. Choice A involves administering blood products, which typically requires assessment and monitoring by a registered nurse. Choice B indicates a potentially serious neurological condition that requires assessment by a higher-level provider. Choice D suggests a client experiencing respiratory distress, which requires immediate assessment and intervention by a registered nurse or physician.

2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic pancreatitis. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients with chronic pancreatitis should avoid fried foods because they are high in fat, which can exacerbate symptoms and lead to further complications. Baked chicken (choice A), grilled salmon (choice B), and steamed broccoli (choice C) are generally healthier options and can be included in a low-fat diet suitable for individuals with chronic pancreatitis.

3. A nurse is teaching at a community health fair about electrical fire prevention. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Use three-pronged grounded plugs.' This is important in preventing electrical fires as it provides a grounded connection, reducing the risk of electrical malfunctions. Choice B is incorrect because covering extension cords with a rug can lead to overheating and increase the risk of fire. Choice C is also incorrect as tingling sensations around a cord indicate an electrical hazard, not proper functioning. Choice D is incorrect as pulling the cord to remove a plug can damage the cord, leading to potential electrical dangers.

4. What is the most critical lab value to monitor for a patient on heparin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT levels. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, as it reflects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range of heparin, minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Platelet count (choice B) is important to assess for potential heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor during heparin therapy. INR levels (choice C) are monitored in patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Sodium levels (choice D) are not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L is at the upper limit of normal and should be monitored closely in clients taking spironolactone, which is potassium-sparing. Elevated potassium levels can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in individuals on potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone. Monitoring and reporting high potassium levels are crucial to prevent potential complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Blood pressure (choice B), sodium level (choice C), and calcium level (choice D) are not directly related to the use of spironolactone and do not require immediate reporting in this scenario.

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