a nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome which of the following recommendations should th
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ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client with irritable bowel syndrome is to consume food high in bran fiber. Bran fiber promotes regularity and can help reduce symptoms of IBS. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing milk products, sweetening foods with fructose corn syrup, and consuming foods high in gluten can exacerbate symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome in some individuals.

2. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse is to insert the catheter until urine flow is established. This helps ensure proper placement and reduces the risk of trauma. Choice A (7.5 cm) and Choice D (5 cm) provide specific measurements that may not be appropriate for all individuals as catheter insertion depth can vary. Choice C is incorrect as catheters should be cleansed with an appropriate solution such as sterile saline, not sterile water.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take is to flush the tube with 0.9% sodium chloride every 4 hours. This helps maintain patency and prevents clogs during enteral feedings. Keeping the head of the bed elevated to 15 degrees (Choice A) is important for preventing aspiration but is not directly related to tube care. Changing the feeding bag every 48 hours (Choice B) is not a standard practice as the bag should be changed every 24 hours to prevent bacterial growth. Administering the feeding through a large-bore syringe (Choice C) is incorrect as enteral feedings should be given through an appropriate feeding pump for accuracy and safety.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is receiving opioid analgesics. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 12/min may indicate respiratory depression, a potential side effect of opioid analgesics. Respiratory depression can be a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in clients receiving opioids to prevent adverse events. Oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and heart rate are important parameters to assess, but a low respiratory rate is a more critical finding that warrants immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.

5. Which lab value is critical to monitor in patients receiving warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial to monitor in patients receiving warfarin therapy. INR measures the blood's ability to clot and is used to ensure that patients are within the therapeutic range for warfarin therapy. This is important to prevent both clotting disorders and bleeding complications. Monitoring potassium levels (choice B) is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Platelet count (choice C) and sodium levels (choice D) are important parameters but are not as critical to monitor specifically for patients on warfarin therapy.

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