Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is administering medications to a group of clients. Which of the following occurrences requires the completion of an incident report?

• A. A client receives his antibiotics 2 hours late.
• B. A client vomits within 20 minutes of taking his morning medications.
• C. A client requests his statin to be administered at 2100.
• D. A client asks for pain medication 1 hour early.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When a client receives antibiotics 2 hours late, it constitutes a medication error, requiring the completion of an incident report. Choice B, a client vomiting within 20 minutes of taking medications, does not necessarily require an incident report unless it is suspected to be related to a medication error. Choice C, a client requesting a statin at a specific time, and choice D, a client asking for pain medication an hour early, are not incidents that mandate the completion of an incident report unless there are specific circumstances indicating otherwise.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 90/min
• B. Capillary refill of 2 seconds
• C. Wound drainage of 30 mL in 8 hours
• D. Warmth and redness in the calf

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Warmth and redness in the calf are indicative of a possible deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a serious complication post-surgery that requires immediate attention. Reporting this finding promptly to the provider is crucial for timely intervention. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits for a postoperative client and do not indicate a potentially life-threatening condition like DVT.

3. A charge nurse is preparing to lead negotiations among nursing staff due to conflict about overtime requirements. Which of the following strategies should the nurse use to promote effective negotiation?

• A. Identify solutions prior to the negotiation.
• B. Focus on how to resolve the conflict.
• C. Attempt to understand both sides of the issue.
• D. Avoid personalizing the conflict.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In negotiating conflicts, it is crucial to attempt to understand both sides of the issue. This strategy helps the charge nurse gain insights into the perspectives and concerns of all parties involved, facilitating a more effective negotiation process. Choice A is not ideal as identifying solutions prior to negotiation may overlook important viewpoints or needs. Choice B is vague and does not provide a specific action plan for resolving the conflict. Choice D is incorrect as personalizing the conflict can lead to biased decision-making and hinder the negotiation process.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which of the following laboratory values should the professional report to the provider?

• A. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
• B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
• C. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• D. Magnesium 2.0 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sodium 140 mEq/L. An elevated sodium level can affect the effectiveness of digoxin therapy and may lead to toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial to report this value to the provider. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium levels are important as well, but elevated sodium can have a more direct impact on digoxin therapy in this scenario.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with patients on furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide use due to its mechanism of action in the kidneys. Hyponatremia (choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not common electrolyte imbalances seen with furosemide use.

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