ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about the stages of wound healing. The nurse should include in the teaching that collagen is added to the wound during which of the following stages?
- A. Hemostasis phase.
- B. Inflammatory phase.
- C. Proliferative phase.
- D. Maturation phase.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Proliferative phase. During the proliferative phase of wound healing, collagen is added to the wound to promote tissue regeneration. In the hemostasis phase (choice A), the primary goal is to stop bleeding by forming a blood clot. The inflammatory phase (choice B) involves cleaning the wound and preparing it for healing. The maturation phase (choice D) is when the wound undergoes remodeling and gains strength, but collagen addition primarily occurs during the proliferative phase.
2. A nurse is teaching a client about self-administration of enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Administer the injection into the muscle of your thigh.
- B. Pinch the skin before inserting the needle.
- C. Rub the injection site after administering the medication.
- D. Administer the injection into the fat tissue of your abdomen.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for self-administration of enoxaparin is to inject it into the fat tissue of the abdomen for proper absorption. Choice A is incorrect as enoxaparin should not be injected into the muscle. Choice B is unnecessary for enoxaparin administration. Choice C is incorrect as rubbing the injection site after administering the medication is not recommended.
3. What is the most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia?
- A. Monitor lung sounds
- B. Check oxygen saturation
- C. Assess for cough
- D. Assess for fever
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia is to monitor lung sounds. Lung sounds provide crucial information about the severity of pneumonia, such as crackles or decreased air entry. This assessment helps in evaluating the effectiveness of ventilation and oxygenation. While checking oxygen saturation is important, monitoring lung sounds gives more direct information about the lung involvement in pneumonia. Assessing for cough and fever are also relevant but do not provide as direct and critical information as monitoring lung sounds in the context of suspected pneumonia.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with patients on furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide use due to its mechanism of action in the kidneys. Hyponatremia (choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not common electrolyte imbalances seen with furosemide use.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Ammonia 75 mcg/dL
- B. Sodium 142 mEq/L
- C. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
- D. Bilirubin 2.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated bilirubin level in clients with cirrhosis indicates worsening liver function and potential complications. It is crucial to report this finding promptly as it may require immediate medical intervention. Elevated ammonia levels (choice A) are also concerning in cirrhosis, indicating hepatic encephalopathy, but bilirubin levels are more specific to liver function in this context. Choices B and C are within normal ranges and are not typically of immediate concern in cirrhosis.
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