a nurse is planning for a client who practices orthodox judaism the client tells the nurse that he cannot eat certain foods during the passover holida
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2024

1. A client who practices Orthodox Judaism informs the nurse that he cannot eat certain foods during the Passover holiday. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the Passover holiday, individuals practicing Orthodox Judaism adhere to specific dietary restrictions, which include consuming unleavened bread. Providing unleavened bread aligns with the client's religious beliefs and dietary requirements. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Serving chicken with cream sauce, avoiding fish with fins and scales, and avoiding foods containing lamb are not directly related to the dietary restrictions observed during the Passover holiday in Orthodox Judaism.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the results of an ABG performed on a client with chronic emphysema. Which of the following results suggests the need for further treatment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A high PaCO2 level (55 mm Hg) in a client with chronic emphysema suggests respiratory acidosis, which requires further treatment. In chronic emphysema, impaired gas exchange leads to elevated carbon dioxide levels in the blood. Option A (PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg) is near the normal range and does not indicate immediate treatment. Option C (HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L) and option D (pH level of 7.37) are within normal limits and do not suggest the need for further treatment in this context.

3. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease are at risk for aspiration due to the potential of regurgitation, which can lead to aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Choice B (receiving a high-osmolarity formula) can lead to issues like diarrhea or dehydration but is not directly related to aspiration. Choice C (sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding) is actually a preventive measure to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D (a residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding) is a concern for delayed gastric emptying but not a direct risk factor for aspiration.

4. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is at 8 weeks of gestation and has a body mass index (BMI) of 24. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the first trimester, it is recommended to increase caloric intake by 300 calories per day to support fetal growth and development. Choice A suggesting an increase of 600 calories is excessive and unnecessary. Choice C advising to maintain prepregnancy caloric intake could lead to inadequate nutrition for the developing fetus. Choice D recommending an increase of 150 calories is insufficient to meet the increased energy demands of pregnancy.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.

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