ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A client who practices Orthodox Judaism informs the nurse that he cannot eat certain foods during the Passover holiday. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Serve chicken with cream sauce
- B. Avoid serving fish with fins and scales
- C. Provide unleavened bread
- D. Avoid serving foods containing lamb
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During the Passover holiday, individuals practicing Orthodox Judaism adhere to specific dietary restrictions, which include consuming unleavened bread. Providing unleavened bread aligns with the client's religious beliefs and dietary requirements. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Serving chicken with cream sauce, avoiding fish with fins and scales, and avoiding foods containing lamb are not directly related to the dietary restrictions observed during the Passover holiday in Orthodox Judaism.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent dislocation of the prosthesis?
- A. Place a pillow between the client's legs.
- B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
- C. Maintain the client in a side-lying position.
- D. Keep the client's legs elevated.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Placing a pillow between the client's legs is the correct action to prevent dislocation of the prosthesis after hip arthroplasty. This positioning helps maintain proper alignment and stability of the hip joint, reducing the risk of dislocation. Placing the client in a high Fowler's position (choice B) is not recommended after hip arthroplasty as it may strain the hip joint. Maintaining the client in a side-lying position (choice C) or keeping the client's legs elevated (choice D) does not provide the same level of support and alignment as placing a pillow between the legs.
3. A client has a central venous catheter. Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent an air embolism?
- A. Keep the catheter clamped when not in use
- B. Have the client perform the Valsalva maneuver while the catheter is removed
- C. Use a non-coring needle to access the catheter
- D. Flush the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride every 24 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action to prevent an air embolism in a client with a central venous catheter is to have the client perform the Valsalva maneuver while the catheter is removed. This maneuver helps to close the airway and prevent air from entering the bloodstream. Keeping the catheter clamped at all times (Choice A) is not necessary and may lead to clot formation. Using a non-coring needle (Choice C) is important for accessing the catheter but does not specifically prevent air embolism. Flushing the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice D) helps maintain patency but does not directly prevent air embolism.
4. A client with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will check my blood glucose levels only when I feel sick.
- B. I will inject insulin in the same spot each time.
- C. I will rotate injection sites within the same anatomical region.
- D. I will inject insulin only if my blood glucose level is above 200 mg/dL.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients with type 1 diabetes should rotate injection sites within the same anatomical region to prevent lipodystrophy. Choice A is incorrect because blood glucose levels should be checked regularly, not only when feeling sick. Choice B is incorrect as injecting insulin in the same spot each time can lead to lipodystrophy. Choice D is incorrect as insulin injections are usually required based on meal schedules and blood glucose levels, not just when levels are above 200 mg/dL.
5. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin?
- A. INR 1.5
- B. aPTT 60 seconds
- C. Platelets 150,000/mm³
- D. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for a clot to form, and a therapeutic range for heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 60-80 seconds. An INR of 1.5 is not related to heparin therapy, as it is commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy. Platelet count and potassium levels are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.
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