ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings is an indication for hemodialysis?
- A. BUN 16 mg/dL
- B. Serum magnesium 1.8 mg/dL
- C. Serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL
- D. Glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/min
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/min indicates severe kidney impairment and the need for hemodialysis. The other choices, such as BUN 16 mg/dL, serum magnesium 1.8 mg/dL, and serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL, are within normal ranges and do not directly indicate the need for hemodialysis in chronic kidney disease.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a total knee replacement. The client reports pain of 8 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer ibuprofen 400 mg PO
- B. Administer oxycodone 10 mg PO
- C. Reposition the client to the unaffected side
- D. Apply a cold compress to the affected knee
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the appropriate action for the nurse to take when a client reports severe postoperative pain of 8 out of 10 is to administer oxycodone 10 mg PO. Oxycodone is a potent analgesic that is more effective in managing severe pain compared to ibuprofen, making choice A incorrect. Repositioning the client to the unaffected side or applying a cold compress may provide some comfort but are not the priority interventions for severe postoperative pain, making choices C and D less appropriate.
3. What is the priority intervention for a patient with fluid overload?
- A. Administer diuretics
- B. Administer IV fluids
- C. Provide oral fluids
- D. Provide chest physiotherapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer diuretics. Diuretics help reduce excess fluid in cases of fluid overload, making it the priority intervention. Administering additional IV fluids (choice B) would exacerbate the problem by adding more fluid. Providing oral fluids (choice C) is not the priority as the excess fluid needs to be removed first. Chest physiotherapy (choice D) is not the primary intervention for fluid overload.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?
- A. Maternal fever.
- B. Fetal anemia.
- C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
- D. Chorioamnionitis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the FHR baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates fetal bradycardia, which can be caused by maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia in the fetus rather than bradycardia. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to manifest as tachycardia due to compensation for decreased oxygen delivery. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) may lead to fetal tachycardia as a sign of fetal distress, not bradycardia.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss through increased urinary excretion, making hypokalemia the most concerning electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely due to furosemide's potassium-wasting effect. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance seen with furosemide.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access