Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings is an indication for hemodialysis?

• A. BUN 16 mg/dL
• B. Serum magnesium 1.8 mg/dL
• C. Serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL
• D. Glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/min

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/min indicates severe kidney impairment and the need for hemodialysis. The other choices, such as BUN 16 mg/dL, serum magnesium 1.8 mg/dL, and serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL, are within normal ranges and do not directly indicate the need for hemodialysis in chronic kidney disease.

2. A charge nurse is teaching new staff members about factors that increase a client's risk of becoming violent. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include as the best predictor of future violence?

• A. Experiencing delusions.
• B. Male gender.
• C. Previous violent behavior.
• D. A history of being in prison.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Previous violent behavior. This is the best predictor of future violence as individuals who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts in the future. While experiencing delusions and being male may contribute to an increased risk of violence in certain situations, they are not as strong predictors as a history of violence. Similarly, having a history of being in prison may indicate a higher likelihood of violence, but it is not as directly linked to future violent behavior as previous violent actions.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Encourage the client to take deep breaths.
• B. Administer oxygen as needed.
• C. Teach the client pursed-lip breathing.
• D. Limit the client's fluid intake.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with COPD is to teach pursed-lip breathing. This technique helps improve oxygenation and reduce dyspnea by promoting better air exchange in the lungs. Encouraging deep breaths may not be suitable for clients with COPD as it can lead to air trapping. Administering oxygen is important in COPD, but teaching pursed-lip breathing is a more direct intervention to help the client manage their condition. Limiting fluid intake is not a standard intervention for COPD and may not be relevant to improving respiratory status.

4. A client with lactose intolerance and has eliminated dairy products from his diet should increase consumption of which of the following foods?

• A. Spinach
• B. Peanut butter
• C. Ground beef
• D. Carrots

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spinach is the correct answer because it is a good source of calcium. Since the client has eliminated dairy products due to lactose intolerance, which are a common source of calcium, increasing spinach consumption can help compensate for the lost calcium. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots are not significant sources of calcium and therefore not the best choice for this client.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an open cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Urinary output of 100 mL in 4 hours
• B. Serosanguineous wound drainage
• C. Heart rate of 94/min
• D. WBC count of 15,000/mm³

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A WBC count of 15,000/mm³ is elevated and may indicate infection, which should be reported. High WBC count is a sign of inflammation or infection, and in a postoperative client, it can be indicative of surgical site infection or another complication. Urinary output, serosanguineous wound drainage, and a heart rate of 94/min are all within normal ranges for a client post cholecystectomy and do not raise immediate concerns for infection or complications.

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