Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving morphine via patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) should have naloxone administered if their respiratory rate is below 10/min. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 4 hours.
• B. Ask the client to rate their pain every 2 hours.
• C. Administer naloxone if the client's respiratory rate is below 10/min.
• D. Evaluate the client's use of the PCA every 4 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer naloxone if the client's respiratory rate falls below 10/min. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is a life-threatening situation. Monitoring the client's blood pressure every 4 hours (Choice A) is not the priority in this scenario as respiratory depression requires immediate attention. Asking the client to rate their pain every 2 hours (Choice B) is important for pain management but addressing respiratory depression takes precedence. Evaluating the client's use of the PCA every 4 hours (Choice D) is a routine nursing intervention but does not directly address the urgent need to reverse respiratory depression in this case.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?

• A. Flush the NG tube with 0.9% sodium chloride before feedings.
• B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position during feedings.
• C. Administer the feedings over 30 minutes.
• D. Warm the formula before administering it.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a high Fowler's position during enteral feedings. This position helps prevent aspiration by promoting the downward flow of the feeding and reducing the risk of regurgitation into the lungs. Choice A is incorrect because flushing the NG tube with 0.9% sodium chloride before feedings is not directly related to preventing aspiration. Choice C is incorrect because the rate of administration does not directly impact the risk of aspiration. Choice D is incorrect because warming the formula does not specifically address the prevention of aspiration during enteral feedings.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will avoid aspirin while taking this medication.
• B. I will increase my intake of green leafy vegetables.
• C. I will take this medication with an antacid.
• D. I should expect mild bruising around my elbows.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "I will avoid aspirin while taking this medication." Clients taking warfarin should avoid aspirin due to the increased risk of bleeding. Choice B is incorrect because increasing the intake of green leafy vegetables high in Vitamin K can interfere with the effects of warfarin. Choice C is incorrect because warfarin should not be taken with antacids as they can decrease its absorption. Choice D is incorrect because mild bruising is a common side effect of warfarin due to its anticoagulant properties.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is receiving opioid analgesics. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 94%
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
• C. Respiratory rate of 12/min
• D. Heart rate of 88/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 12/min may indicate respiratory depression, a potential side effect of opioid analgesics. Respiratory depression can be a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in clients receiving opioids to prevent adverse events. Oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and heart rate are important parameters to assess, but a low respiratory rate is a more critical finding that warrants immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.

5. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

• A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
• B. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
• C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
• D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease are at risk for aspiration due to the potential of regurgitation, which can lead to aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Choice B (receiving a high-osmolarity formula) can lead to issues like diarrhea or dehydration but is not directly related to aspiration. Choice C (sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding) is actually a preventive measure to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D (a residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding) is a concern for delayed gastric emptying but not a direct risk factor for aspiration.

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