Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic heart failure. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing fluid overload?

• A. Increased urine output
• B. Bounding peripheral pulses
• C. Weight loss
• D. Decreased heart rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with chronic heart failure, bounding peripheral pulses are a classic sign of fluid overload. This occurs due to increased volume in the arterial system, causing a forceful pulse. Increased urine output (Choice A) is often seen in clients with fluid volume deficit, not overload. Weight loss (Choice C) is also inconsistent with fluid overload as it suggests a fluid deficit. Decreased heart rate (Choice D) is more commonly associated with conditions like bradycardia, hypothyroidism, or the use of certain medications, but not specifically indicative of fluid overload in chronic heart failure.

2. A nurse is preparing to mix NPH and regular insulin in the same syringe. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Inject air into the NPH insulin vial.
• B. Withdraw the prescribed dose of regular insulin.
• C. Withdraw the prescribed dose of NPH insulin.
• D. Mix the two insulins in separate syringes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When mixing NPH and regular insulin in the same syringe, the nurse should first inject air into the NPH insulin vial. This action prevents contamination by allowing an easier withdrawal of the correct dose of NPH insulin after withdrawing the regular insulin. Withdrawing the prescribed dose of regular insulin (Choice B) is incorrect as it does not address the initial step of injecting air into the NPH vial. Similarly, withdrawing the prescribed dose of NPH insulin (Choice C) is incorrect as it skips the crucial first step. Mixing the two insulins in separate syringes (Choice D) is not ideal since combining them in one syringe is a common practice to reduce the number of injections for the patient.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pneumothorax and is being treated with a chest tube. Which of the following findings indicates that the lung has re-expanded?

• A. There is no fluctuation in the water seal chamber.
• B. There is continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber.
• C. There is tidaling in the water seal chamber.
• D. The drainage system is positioned at the level of the client's chest.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'There is no fluctuation in the water seal chamber.' In a client with a pneumothorax being treated with a chest tube, the absence of fluctuation in the water seal chamber indicates that the lung has re-expanded. This finding suggests that there is no air leak from the lung into the pleural space. Choices B and C are incorrect because continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber or tidaling in the water seal chamber would suggest ongoing air leakage, indicating that the lung has not fully re-expanded. Choice D is also incorrect as the position of the drainage system does not directly indicate lung re-expansion.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has acute kidney injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mg/dL
• B. Urine output of 45 mL/hr
• C. Serum creatinine 3.5 mg/dL
• D. Calcium 9 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Serum creatinine 3.5 mg/dL.' An elevated serum creatinine level indicates worsening kidney function and impaired renal clearance, which should be reported to the provider promptly. Choice A, 'Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mg/dL,' is within the normal range (7-20 mg/dL) and does not indicate acute kidney injury. Choice B, 'Urine output of 45 mL/hr,' is a low urine output but does not directly reflect kidney function decline. Choice D, 'Calcium 9 mg/dL,' is within the normal calcium range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and is not specifically indicative of acute kidney injury.

5. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin?

• A. INR 1.5
• B. aPTT 60 seconds
• C. Platelets 150,000/mm³
• D. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for a clot to form, and a therapeutic range for heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 60-80 seconds. An INR of 1.5 is not related to heparin therapy, as it is commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy. Platelet count and potassium levels are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

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