ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic heart failure. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing fluid overload?
- A. Increased urine output
- B. Bounding peripheral pulses
- C. Weight loss
- D. Decreased heart rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In clients with chronic heart failure, bounding peripheral pulses are a classic sign of fluid overload. This occurs due to increased volume in the arterial system, causing a forceful pulse. Increased urine output (Choice A) is often seen in clients with fluid volume deficit, not overload. Weight loss (Choice C) is also inconsistent with fluid overload as it suggests a fluid deficit. Decreased heart rate (Choice D) is more commonly associated with conditions like bradycardia, hypothyroidism, or the use of certain medications, but not specifically indicative of fluid overload in chronic heart failure.
2. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in a patient receiving digoxin?
- A. Monitor potassium levels
- B. Monitor sodium levels
- C. Monitor calcium levels
- D. Monitor glucose levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Potassium levels should be monitored closely in a patient receiving digoxin to avoid hypokalemia. Digoxin can increase the risk of developing life-threatening arrhythmias in the presence of low potassium levels. Monitoring sodium, calcium, or glucose levels is not specifically necessary for patients on digoxin, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent tube feeding to a client who has a gastrostomy tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Flush the tube with 10 mL of water after feeding
- B. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water before feeding
- C. Place the client in a left lateral position
- D. Place the feeding bag 61 cm (24 in) above the client's abdomen
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer an intermittent tube feeding to a client with a gastrostomy tube is to flush the tube with 30 mL of water before feeding. This step helps ensure the patency of the tube by clearing any blockages or residuals. Choice A is incorrect because flushing after feeding would not prevent clogging before the feeding. Choice C is unrelated to tube feeding administration. Choice D is incorrect as the height for the feeding bag is usually recommended to be at or below the level of the stomach to prevent complications like aspiration.
4. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with preeclampsia is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take a daily aspirin to prevent blood clots.
- B. I will call my provider if I experience swelling in my hands.
- C. I should increase my calcium intake to prevent seizures.
- D. I will restrict my protein intake to prevent further kidney damage.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because swelling in the hands is a potential sign of worsening preeclampsia, and the client should report this to their provider. Choice A is incorrect since aspirin is not recommended in preeclampsia. Choice C is incorrect as calcium intake is not directly related to preventing seizures in preeclampsia. Choice D is incorrect because protein restriction is not the standard management for preventing further kidney damage in preeclampsia.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours.
- B. Check the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes.
- C. Obtain a prescription for restraint within 4 hours.
- D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Obtaining a prescription for restraint within 4 hours is the correct action when managing restraints in a client with acute mania. This timeframe ensures that the use of restraints is promptly evaluated and authorized by a healthcare provider. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary and may delay appropriate care. Checking the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes (Choice B) is important but not the immediate priority when dealing with obtaining a prescription for restraints. Documenting the client's condition every 15 minutes (Choice D) is essential for monitoring, but the priority is to secure a prescription for restraints promptly.
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