Nursing Elites

1. What is the best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath?

• A. Supine position
• B. Semi-Fowler's position
• C. Trendelenburg position
• D. Prone position

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Supine position (lying flat on the back) may worsen breathing difficulties by reducing lung capacity. The Trendelenburg position (feet elevated higher than the head) is not recommended for patients with shortness of breath as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The Prone position (lying face down) is also not suitable for patients experiencing shortness of breath as it may further restrict breathing.

2. A healthcare provider is teaching a client who has a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Take this medication with meals.
• B. Take this medication at the same time every day.
• C. Report any chest pain to your healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Take an antacid if indigestion occurs.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed levothyroxine is to take the medication at the same time every day. This consistency is important for maintaining stable thyroid hormone levels. Choice A is incorrect because levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach to ensure proper absorption. Choice C is important but not directly related to the administration of levothyroxine. Choice D is incorrect as antacids can interfere with the absorption of levothyroxine.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Serum calcium
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Serum protein
• D. Serum albumin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Serum albumin. Serum albumin levels are a good indicator of the nutritional effectiveness of total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Monitoring serum albumin levels helps assess the client's overall protein status and nutritional adequacy. Choices A, B, and C are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of TPN therapy. Serum calcium levels may be affected by other factors, blood glucose monitoring is more relevant for clients with diabetes or those receiving insulin therapy, and serum protein is not as specific as serum albumin in evaluating TPN effectiveness.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hr postpartum and is breastfeeding her newborn. The client asks the nurse to warm up seaweed soup that her partner brought for her. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Does the doctor know you are eating that?
• B. Why are you eating seaweed soup?
• C. Of course, I will heat that up for you.
• D. The hospital food is more nutritious.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Respecting cultural preferences and providing client-centered care promotes trust.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on diuretics?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Patients on diuretics are at risk of developing hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion by the kidneys. Hypokalemia can lead to serious consequences such as cardiac arrhythmias. Hyponatremia (choice B) is an imbalance of sodium levels and is not typically associated with diuretic use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is the opposite condition where potassium levels are elevated and is less common in patients on diuretics. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is an excess of calcium in the blood and is not directly related to diuretic use. Therefore, monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial in patients taking diuretics.

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