Nursing Elites

1. What is the best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath?

• A. Supine position
• B. Semi-Fowler's position
• C. Trendelenburg position
• D. Prone position

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Supine position (lying flat on the back) may worsen breathing difficulties by reducing lung capacity. The Trendelenburg position (feet elevated higher than the head) is not recommended for patients with shortness of breath as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The Prone position (lying face down) is also not suitable for patients experiencing shortness of breath as it may further restrict breathing.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serosanguineous wound drainage
• B. Heart rate of 90/min
• C. Urine output of 30 mL/hr
• D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A urine output of 30 mL/hr is significantly low and indicates possible renal impairment or inadequate perfusion to the kidneys, which are critical for postoperative recovery. In this situation, decreased urine output could lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances, affecting the client's overall condition. The nurse should report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention. Serosanguineous wound drainage is a normal finding in the early postoperative period and does not typically warrant immediate concern. A heart rate of 90/min is within the normal range and may be expected in a postoperative client due to the stress response. A temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F) is slightly elevated but not a concerning finding in isolation postoperatively.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client who has a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Check for tube placement.
• B. Flush the NG tube with 0.9% sodium chloride.
• C. Administer the medications as a bolus.
• D. Dissolve the medications in 30 mL of sterile water.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer medications to a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube is to check for tube placement. This step is crucial to ensure that the NG tube is correctly positioned in the stomach and not in the respiratory tract, reducing the risk of aspiration. Flushing the NG tube with 0.9% sodium chloride, administering the medications as a bolus, or dissolving the medications in sterile water should only be done after confirming the proper placement of the NG tube. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect as they precede the essential step of verifying tube placement.

4. A client with asthma is being taught how to use a peak flow meter by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Blow as hard as possible into the mouthpiece.
• B. Exhale quickly and forcefully after taking a deep breath.
• C. Inhale as deeply as possible and then blow into the mouthpiece.
• D. Take a deep breath and hold it for 5 seconds before exhaling.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client should exhale quickly and forcefully into the peak flow meter after taking a deep breath to measure peak expiratory flow. Choice A is incorrect as blowing as hard as possible may not provide an accurate reading. Choice C is incorrect because inhaling deeply before blowing can affect the results. Choice D is incorrect as holding the breath before exhaling is not part of using a peak flow meter.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has liver cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL
• B. Ammonia 35 mcg/dL
• C. Prothrombin time 16 seconds
• D. Albumin 4 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with liver cirrhosis, an elevated prothrombin time indicates impaired liver function and decreased production of clotting factors. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not specifically indicate worsening liver cirrhosis. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL is normal, ammonia 35 mcg/dL is within the reference range, and albumin 4 g/dL is also within the normal range for this client population.

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