ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of the effectiveness of the treatment?
- A. Respiratory rate of 24/min
- B. White blood cell count of 15,000/mm3
- C. SpO2 of 95%
- D. Clear breath sounds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clear breath sounds are an essential indicator of effective pneumonia treatment as they suggest resolution of the lung infection. A normal respiratory rate (A) indicates adequate breathing but does not directly reflect the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment. An elevated white blood cell count (B) is a sign of infection and may not decrease immediately with treatment. While maintaining an SpO2 of 95% (C) is crucial for oxygenation, it may not directly indicate the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Massage the injection site after administration.
- B. Administer the medication intramuscularly.
- C. Inject the medication into the client's abdomen.
- D. Inject the medication into the deltoid muscle.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to inject the medication into the client's abdomen. Enoxaparin is a medication that should be administered subcutaneously, not intramuscularly. Massaging the injection site after administration is not recommended as it can cause bruising or discomfort. Injecting the medication into the deltoid muscle is also incorrect because enoxaparin should be given in areas of adipose tissue, such as the abdomen, to ensure proper absorption and effectiveness.
3. When should healthcare professionals perform hand hygiene?
- A. Before and after patient contact
- B. Before and after performing procedures
- C. After using the restroom
- D. After touching contaminated surfaces
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Healthcare professionals should perform hand hygiene before and after patient contact to prevent the spread of infections. While choices B, C, and D are also important times to practice hand hygiene, they are not as crucial as before and after patient contact because patient contact poses a higher risk of transmitting infections.
4. A charge nurse is preparing to lead negotiations among nursing staff due to conflict about overtime requirements. Which of the following strategies should the nurse use to promote effective negotiation?
- A. Identify solutions prior to the negotiation.
- B. Focus on how to resolve the conflict.
- C. Attempt to understand both sides of the issue.
- D. Avoid personalizing the conflict.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In negotiating conflicts, it is crucial to attempt to understand both sides of the issue. This strategy helps the charge nurse gain insights into the perspectives and concerns of all parties involved, facilitating a more effective negotiation process. Choice A is not ideal as identifying solutions prior to negotiation may overlook important viewpoints or needs. Choice B is vague and does not provide a specific action plan for resolving the conflict. Choice D is incorrect as personalizing the conflict can lead to biased decision-making and hinder the negotiation process.
5. A client with iron deficiency anemia has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take with a glass of milk to prevent stomach upset.
- B. Take with orange juice to enhance absorption.
- C. Take on an empty stomach to increase absorption.
- D. Take with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction is to take ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach to increase absorption. This is because taking it with food or dairy products like milk can reduce its absorption. Orange juice is not recommended as it may interfere with the absorption of iron. Taking ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach may cause gastrointestinal upset, but this can be minimized by gradually increasing the dose.
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