Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of the effectiveness of the treatment?

• A. Respiratory rate of 24/min
• B. White blood cell count of 15,000/mm3
• C. SpO2 of 95%
• D. Clear breath sounds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clear breath sounds are an essential indicator of effective pneumonia treatment as they suggest resolution of the lung infection. A normal respiratory rate (A) indicates adequate breathing but does not directly reflect the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment. An elevated white blood cell count (B) is a sign of infection and may not decrease immediately with treatment. While maintaining an SpO2 of 95% (C) is crucial for oxygenation, it may not directly indicate the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment.

2. A nurse is caring for a newborn who is 1-day-old and receiving phototherapy for jaundice. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Feed the infant 30 ml (1 oz) of glucose water every 2 hours.
• B. Keep the infant's head covered with a cap.
• C. Ensure that the newborn wears a diaper.
• D. Apply lotion to the newborn every 4 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to ensure that the newborn wears a diaper. This is important to prevent skin irritation during phototherapy. Choice A is incorrect as newborns should be breastfed or formula-fed, not given glucose water. Choice B is unnecessary and may interfere with the effectiveness of phototherapy. Choice D is inappropriate as lotions can interfere with the phototherapy and increase the risk of skin damage.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor, and the FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What should the nurse suspect?

• A. Maternal fever.
• B. Fetal anemia.
• C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
• D. Chorioamnionitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to fetal bradycardia, which is indicated by a baseline FHR of 100/min. In this scenario, the sustained low baseline FHR suggests a possible link to maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) usually causes fetal tachycardia as a compensatory mechanism to deliver more oxygen to tissues. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is associated with maternal fever and an elevated fetal heart rate, not a sustained low baseline FHR.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia and is receiving oxygen therapy. Which of the following findings indicates the need for suctioning?

• A. Increased respiratory rate.
• B. Oxygen saturation 96%.
• C. Clear lung sounds.
• D. Productive cough.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased respiratory rate. An increased respiratory rate suggests the client is having difficulty clearing secretions and may require suctioning. Oxygen saturation of 96% is within the normal range and indicates adequate oxygenation. Clear lung sounds suggest good air entry without the need for suctioning. A productive cough, although a symptom of pneumonia, does not directly indicate the need for suctioning.

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication in the morning.
• B. You may experience a persistent cough while taking this medication.
• C. Avoid taking this medication with a potassium supplement.
• D. Take this medication with a full glass of water.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'You may experience a persistent cough while taking this medication.' Lisinopril is known to cause a persistent cough as a common side effect. It is essential for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect, as it should be reported to the healthcare provider. Choice A is incorrect because lisinopril is usually taken once daily, but not necessarily at bedtime. Choice C is incorrect because lisinopril can actually increase potassium levels, so taking it with a potassium supplement may lead to hyperkalemia. Choice D is incorrect because antacids may reduce the effectiveness of lisinopril, so it should not be taken with them.

Similar Questions