a nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of the effectiveness of th
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of the effectiveness of the treatment?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clear breath sounds are an essential indicator of effective pneumonia treatment as they suggest resolution of the lung infection. A normal respiratory rate (A) indicates adequate breathing but does not directly reflect the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment. An elevated white blood cell count (B) is a sign of infection and may not decrease immediately with treatment. While maintaining an SpO2 of 95% (C) is crucial for oxygenation, it may not directly indicate the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment.

2. A nurse in a pediatric clinic is reviewing the laboratory test results of a school-age child. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A WBC count of 14,000/mm³ is elevated, indicating a potential infection or inflammation, and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting as they indicate normal hemoglobin, platelet count, and hematocrit levels for a school-age child.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to inject the medication into the client's abdomen. Enoxaparin is a medication that should be administered subcutaneously, not intramuscularly. Massaging the injection site after administration is not recommended as it can cause bruising or discomfort. Injecting the medication into the deltoid muscle is also incorrect because enoxaparin should be given in areas of adipose tissue, such as the abdomen, to ensure proper absorption and effectiveness.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has acute kidney injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Serum creatinine 3.5 mg/dL.' An elevated serum creatinine level indicates worsening kidney function and impaired renal clearance, which should be reported to the provider promptly. Choice A, 'Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mg/dL,' is within the normal range (7-20 mg/dL) and does not indicate acute kidney injury. Choice B, 'Urine output of 45 mL/hr,' is a low urine output but does not directly reflect kidney function decline. Choice D, 'Calcium 9 mg/dL,' is within the normal calcium range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and is not specifically indicative of acute kidney injury.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following medications should the nurse question?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which may lead to hyperkalemia in clients with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, its use should be questioned in this population. Choice A, Calcium carbonate, is commonly used to manage phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease. Choice B, Furosemide, is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but should be used with caution in kidney disease. Choice C, Epoetin alfa, is a medication used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease and anemia.

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