ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A client with a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will need to check my blood glucose level once a week.
- B. I will limit my carbohydrate intake to 50 grams per day.
- C. I should avoid eating foods high in protein.
- D. I should eat a snack if my blood glucose level is below 200 mg/dL.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients with diabetes should eat a snack if their blood glucose level is below 70 mg/dL, not 200 mg/dL. Option A is incorrect because checking blood glucose levels once a week may not provide adequate monitoring for someone with diabetes. Option B is incorrect as a strict limit of 50 grams of carbohydrates per day may not be suitable for everyone and can vary based on individual needs. Option C is incorrect as it is important for clients with diabetes to have a balanced diet that includes protein in moderation.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a wound infection and is receiving gentamicin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to detect an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Creatinine.
- B. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST).
- C. White blood cell count.
- D. Serum glucose.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Creatinine. Gentamicin can cause nephrotoxicity, leading to impaired kidney function. Monitoring creatinine levels helps the nurse detect any potential kidney damage. Choice B, Aspartate aminotransferase (AST), is not typically affected by gentamicin. Choice C, White blood cell count, is not directly related to gentamicin adverse effects. Choice D, Serum glucose, is not specifically monitored for gentamicin adverse effects.
3. A nurse is planning care for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a hypophysectomy for the removal of a pituitary tumor. Which of the following findings requires further assessment by the nurse?
- A. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15
- B. Blood drainage on the initial dressing measuring 3 cm
- C. Report of dry mouth
- D. Urinary output greater than fluid intake
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Urinary output greater than fluid intake could indicate diabetes insipidus, a complication following hypophysectomy. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive urination and extreme thirst due to inadequate levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Options A, B, and C are all expected findings in the immediate postoperative period following a hypophysectomy. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15 indicates the highest level of consciousness, blood drainage on the initial dressing is a common finding after surgery, and dry mouth can be a side effect of anesthesia and surgical procedures.
4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic kidney disease. The nurse should identify which of the following laboratory values as an indication for hemodialysis?
- A. Glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/minute
- B. BUN 16 mg/dL
- C. Serum magnesium 1.8 mg/dL
- D. Serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/minute indicates severe kidney dysfunction, necessitating hemodialysis. The other options, BUN of 16 mg/dL, serum magnesium of 1.8 mg/dL, and serum phosphorus of 4.0 mg/dL, are within normal ranges and do not serve as indications for hemodialysis.
5. A client in her second trimester of pregnancy is being taught by a nurse about managing nausea and vomiting. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. ''I will drink a glass of orange juice before I get out of bed.''
- B. ''I will eat small, frequent meals throughout the day.''
- C. ''I will take 1 g of acetaminophen every 6 hours.''
- D. ''I will avoid foods that have a strong odor.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Eating small, frequent meals is a recommended strategy to manage nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. This approach helps prevent an empty stomach, which can worsen symptoms. Option A is not as effective as eating small, frequent meals. Option C is unrelated to managing nausea and vomiting, and acetaminophen should only be taken as directed by a healthcare provider. Option D may help reduce nausea in some cases, but the most appropriate response related to managing symptoms is to eat small, frequent meals.
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