ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is completing an incident report after a client fall. Which of the following competencies of Quality and Safety Education for Nurses is the nurse demonstrating?
- A. Quality improvement
- B. Patient safety
- C. Evidence-based practice
- D. Informatics
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Quality improvement. Completing an incident report after a client fall aligns with the quality improvement competency of QSEN, as it involves identifying a system issue (fall incident) that needs to be addressed to enhance the quality of care. Choice B, patient safety, focuses more on preventing harm to patients rather than the systematic improvement process. Choice C, evidence-based practice, pertains to integrating research evidence with clinical expertise and patient values in decision-making, which is not directly related to incident reporting. Choice D, informatics, involves using technology and data to support decision-making and improve patient care, which is not the primary focus when completing an incident report.
2. A healthcare professional is receiving a telephone prescription from a provider for a client who requires additional medication for pain control. Which of the following entries should the professional make in the medical record?
- A. Morphine 3 mg SC every 4 hr. PRN for pain
- B. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous
- C. Morphine 3.0 mg subq every 4 hr. PRN for pain
- D. Morphine 3 mg SC q 4 hr. PRN for pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct entry for the medication in the medical record should include the abbreviation 'SC' (subcutaneous) for the route of administration. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately represents the prescription received. Choice B is incorrect because it lacks the frequency and PRN indication. Choice C is incorrect due to the incorrect abbreviation 'subq' and the missing 'q' before the frequency. Choice D is incorrect because it uses 'SC' but the frequency abbreviation 'q' should be followed by the time interval.
3. A client has a nasogastric tube and is receiving intermittent enteral feedings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?
- A. Administer a bolus feeding over 10 minutes.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings.
- C. Flush the tube with 10 mL of sterile water before feedings.
- D. Position the client on the left side during feedings.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To prevent aspiration in clients with a nasogastric tube receiving intermittent enteral feedings, the nurse should elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of the feeding contents. Administering a bolus feeding over 10 minutes (choice A) may not prevent aspiration as effectively as elevating the head of the bed. Flushing the tube with sterile water before feedings (choice C) is important for tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration. Positioning the client on the left side during feedings (choice D) is not the recommended action to prevent aspiration; elevating the head of the bed is more effective.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease. The nurse should identify which of the following laboratory values as an indication for hemodialysis?
- A. Glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/min
- B. BUN 16 mg/dL
- C. Serum magnesium 1.8 mg/dL
- D. Serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 14 mL/min is significantly low, indicating poor kidney function and the need for hemodialysis to remove waste products effectively. BUN, serum magnesium, and serum phosphorus levels are important in assessing kidney function and electrolyte balance but are not direct indicators for the initiation of hemodialysis. BUN (blood urea nitrogen) reflects the kidney's ability to filter waste products, serum magnesium levels are important for muscle and nerve function, and serum phosphorus levels are vital for bone health.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial in patients on furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not commonly linked to furosemide therapy; therefore, they are incorrect choices.
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