Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary purpose of administering an antiemetic?

• A. To reduce nausea and vomiting
• B. To increase appetite
• C. To treat nausea caused by chemotherapy
• D. To treat allergic reactions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'To reduce nausea and vomiting.' Antiemetics are medications used to prevent or alleviate nausea and vomiting. While they may indirectly help with appetite by reducing the unpleasant symptoms that can lead to decreased food intake, their primary purpose is not to increase appetite (Choice B). Choice C, 'To treat nausea caused by chemotherapy,' is partly correct as antiemetics are commonly used to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea, but this is not their exclusive purpose. Choice D, 'To treat allergic reactions,' is incorrect as antiemetics are not primarily used for treating allergic reactions.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following actions should the nurse implement?

• A. Massage the client's legs every 2 hours.
• B. Encourage the client to remain on bed rest.
• C. Apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs.
• D. Administer anticoagulants as prescribed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should implement is to apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs. This intervention helps prevent venous stasis and reduce the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Massaging the client's legs may dislodge a clot and is contraindicated in this situation (choice A). Encouraging bed rest may increase the risk of DVT due to prolonged immobility (choice B). While administering anticoagulants is a common treatment for DVT, in this case, the question is about preventive measures, and using sequential compression devices is a non-pharmacological approach.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Serum calcium
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Serum protein
• D. Serum albumin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Serum albumin. Serum albumin levels are a good indicator of the nutritional effectiveness of total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Monitoring serum albumin levels helps assess the client's overall protein status and nutritional adequacy. Choices A, B, and C are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of TPN therapy. Serum calcium levels may be affected by other factors, blood glucose monitoring is more relevant for clients with diabetes or those receiving insulin therapy, and serum protein is not as specific as serum albumin in evaluating TPN effectiveness.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Calcium
• B. Sodium
• C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
• D. Magnesium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). Monitoring TSH levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of levothyroxine in clients with hypothyroidism. TSH is produced by the pituitary gland and stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones. In hypothyroidism, where the thyroid gland is underactive, administering levothyroxine helps to normalize thyroid hormone levels. Monitoring TSH levels allows the healthcare provider to adjust the levothyroxine dosage to ensure that thyroid hormone levels are within the therapeutic range. Choices A, B, and D (Calcium, Sodium, and Magnesium) are not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of levothyroxine therapy in hypothyroidism and would not provide relevant information regarding the medication's efficacy.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has depression and reports taking St. John's wort along with citalopram. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following conditions as a result of an interaction between these substances?

• A. Serotonin syndrome
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Pseudo-parkinsonism
• D. Acute dystonia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serotonin syndrome. When a client takes St. John's wort, a herbal supplement, along with citalopram, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), there is a risk of developing serotonin syndrome. Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition characterized by symptoms such as confusion, agitation, fever, sweating, shivering, tremors, muscle rigidity, and in severe cases, seizures and coma. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for these symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because tardive dyskinesia is associated with long-term use of antipsychotic medications, pseudo-parkinsonism is a side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, and acute dystonia is a side effect of antipsychotic medications characterized by sustained muscle contractions.

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