ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Limit fluid intake to 2 liters per day.
- B. Increase your intake of whole grains.
- C. Eat 3 large meals daily.
- D. Consume foods high in potassium.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Increase your intake of whole grains.' Whole grains are beneficial for individuals with hypertension as they can help promote heart health. Whole grains are high in fiber, which can help lower blood pressure. Option A is incorrect as fluid intake should be adequate but not restricted to 2 liters per day. Option C is incorrect as it is recommended to have smaller, more frequent meals rather than 3 large meals to help manage hypertension. Option D is incorrect; although foods high in potassium can be beneficial for hypertension, the most appropriate dietary modification to include in this scenario is increasing whole grain intake.
2. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. You should weigh yourself once a week while taking this medication.
- B. You should eat foods rich in potassium while taking this medication.
- C. You should take this medication at bedtime.
- D. You should take this medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients taking furosemide, a potassium-wasting diuretic, should increase their intake of potassium-rich foods to prevent hypokalemia. Option A is incorrect because weight monitoring is crucial for furosemide due to fluid loss. Option C is incorrect as furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Option D is incorrect because furosemide is best taken on an empty stomach for better absorption.
3. A nurse is planning care for a school-age child who is 4 hours postoperative following perforated appendicitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Offer small amounts of clear liquids 6 hours following surgery.
- B. Give cromolyn nebulizer solution every 6 hours.
- C. Apply a warm compress to the operative site every 4 hours.
- D. Administer analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hours.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hours is crucial in managing postoperative pain for the child. This helps control pain levels effectively, promoting comfort and aiding in the recovery process. Offering small amounts of clear liquids 6 hours following surgery may not be appropriate as the child may need time to recover from anesthesia. Giving cromolyn nebulizer solution every 6 hours is not indicated for postoperative care following appendicitis surgery. Applying a warm compress every 4 hours to the operative site may not be recommended as it can potentially interfere with the surgical wound healing process.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Albumin 3.5 g/dL
- B. Bilirubin 1.0 mg/dL
- C. INR 3.0
- D. Ammonia 80 mcg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An INR of 3.0 is elevated, indicating impaired blood clotting function, which poses a significant risk of bleeding in clients with cirrhosis. This finding should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A (Albumin 3.5 g/dL) is within the normal range and indicates adequate liver synthetic function, so it does not require immediate reporting. Choice B (Bilirubin 1.0 mg/dL) is also within the normal range and typically seen in clients without significant liver dysfunction, so it does not need urgent attention. Choice D (Ammonia 80 mcg/dL) is elevated, but it is not the priority finding in cirrhosis; elevated ammonia levels are associated with hepatic encephalopathy rather than increased bleeding risk.
5. Which lab value should be monitored for a patient on warfarin therapy?
- A. Monitor INR
- B. Monitor potassium levels
- C. Monitor platelet count
- D. Monitor sodium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR for a patient on warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and safety of warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio, and it measures the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice B) is not specific to warfarin therapy. Monitoring platelet count (Choice C) is important but not the primary lab value for assessing warfarin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice D) is not directly related to warfarin therapy.
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