ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. Which lab value should be monitored in a patient on digoxin?
- A. Monitor potassium levels
- B. Monitor calcium levels
- C. Monitor digoxin levels
- D. Monitor sodium levels
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor digoxin levels in a patient on digoxin. Digoxin is a medication commonly used to treat heart conditions, and monitoring its levels in the blood is crucial to ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range and to prevent toxicity. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice A) is important due to the potential of digoxin-induced hypokalemia, but the primary focus should be on monitoring digoxin levels. Monitoring calcium levels (Choice B) and sodium levels (Choice D) are not directly related to digoxin therapy and are not the primary lab values of concern when administering digoxin.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who speaks a language different from the nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Request an interpreter of a different sex from the client
- B. Request a family member or friend to interpret information for the client
- C. Direct attention toward the interpreter when speaking to the client
- D. Review the facility policy about the use of an interpreter
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client who speaks a different language is to review the facility policy about the use of an interpreter. This ensures compliance with best practices for communication when using interpreters, maintaining accuracy and confidentiality. Requesting an interpreter of a different sex from the client (Choice A) is not relevant to effective communication. Asking a family member or friend to interpret (Choice B) can lead to misinterpretation or breach of confidentiality. Directing attention toward the interpreter (Choice C) is not as crucial as understanding the facility's policy on interpreter use.
3. A client with bipolar disorder and experiencing mania is under the care of a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Encourage the client to spend time in the day room.
- B. Withdraw the client's TV privileges if they do not attend group therapy.
- C. Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods.
- D. Place the client in seclusion when they exhibit signs of anxiety.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Encouraging the client to take frequent rest periods is an appropriate intervention for managing mania in a client with bipolar disorder. During a manic episode, individuals often have increased energy levels, decreased need for sleep, and may engage in high-risk behaviors. Encouraging regular rest periods can help reduce stimulation and promote relaxation, which may assist in stabilizing mood. Choices A and B are not as effective in managing manic symptoms, as they do not directly address the client's need for rest and relaxation. Choice D is inappropriate because placing the client in seclusion can increase feelings of anxiety and agitation, worsening the manic episode.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of seizure disorder and is receiving phenytoin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Ataxia.
- C. Tachycardia.
- D. Insomnia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ataxia. Ataxia, which refers to uncoordinated movements, is a common adverse effect of phenytoin, a medication used to manage seizure disorders. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with phenytoin; instead, it may cause tachycardia (Choice C) as a side effect. Insomnia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin.
5. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin is being taught about the medication's adverse effects by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. ''I should expect mild bruising around my elbows.''
- B. ''I should report a red rash to my provider.''
- C. ''I should stop taking this medication if I develop a cough.''
- D. ''I should expect black, tarry stools.''
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Black, tarry stools can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious adverse effect of warfarin that requires immediate medical attention. Option A is incorrect because while bruising is a common side effect of warfarin, it is not limited to the elbows. Option B is incorrect as a red rash is not a typical adverse effect of warfarin. Option C is also incorrect because developing a cough is not a reason to discontinue warfarin unless advised by a healthcare provider.
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