ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam
1. A nurse is reviewing admission prescriptions for a group of clients. Which prescription should the nurse identify as complete?
- A. Furosemide 20 mg BID
- B. Aspirin 1 tablet daily
- C. Nitroglycerin transdermal patch
- D. Metoprolol 5 mg IV now
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A complete prescription should include the medication name (Furosemide), dosage (20 mg), and administration schedule (BID - twice daily). Choice B is missing the dosage of Aspirin, choice C lacks the dosage information for Nitroglycerin, and choice D does not specify the administration schedule for Metoprolol.
2. A nurse in a pediatric unit is preparing to insert an IV catheter for a 7-year-old. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Allow the child to handle the IV supplies to become familiar with them.
- B. Tell the child they will feel discomfort during the catheter insertion.
- C. Use a mummy restraint to hold the child during the catheter insertion.
- D. Require the parents to leave the room during the procedure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because informing the child that they will feel discomfort during catheter insertion is crucial to prepare them for the procedure. Choice A is incorrect as children should not handle medical supplies. Choice C is inappropriate as using a restraint can cause anxiety and fear in the child. Choice D is not necessary as having parents present can provide comfort and support to the child during the procedure.
3. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Insert the catheter 7.5 cm (3 in) into the urethra.
- B. Insert the catheter until urine flow is established.
- C. Cleanse the catheter with sterile water before insertion.
- D. Insert the catheter 5 cm (2 in) into the urethra.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse is to insert the catheter until urine flow is established. This helps ensure proper placement and reduces the risk of trauma. Choice A (7.5 cm) and Choice D (5 cm) provide specific measurements that may not be appropriate for all individuals as catheter insertion depth can vary. Choice C is incorrect as catheters should be cleansed with an appropriate solution such as sterile saline, not sterile water.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure of 98/58 mm Hg
- B. Urine output of 50 mL/hr
- C. Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
- D. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy, and should be reported immediately. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are important assessments but are not as critical as managing serum potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis and a new prescription for lactulose. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following therapeutic effects of this medication?
- A. Improved mental status.
- B. Increased urine output.
- C. Decreased serum ammonia.
- D. Decreased bilirubin levels.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased serum ammonia. Lactulose is prescribed to decrease serum ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis and hepatic encephalopathy. By reducing serum ammonia, lactulose helps improve the mental status of these clients. Therefore, monitoring for decreased serum ammonia is crucial to assess the effectiveness of lactulose therapy. Choice A (Improved mental status) is indirectly related as it is the desired outcome of decreasing ammonia levels. Choices B (Increased urine output) and D (Decreased bilirubin levels) are not directly associated with the therapeutic effects of lactulose in cirrhosis and hepatic encephalopathy.
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