Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assisting with the development of an informed document for participation in a research study. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. A statement that participants can leave the study at will.
• B. An assignment of the participant to either the experimental or control group.
• C. A list of the clients participating in the study.
• D. A description of the framework the researchers will use to evaluate the data.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'A statement that participants can leave the study at will.' This information is crucial to include in the informed document to ensure that participants are aware of their right to withdraw from the study at any time without any negative consequences. Choice B is incorrect because participants should not be assigned to experimental or control groups without their knowledge and consent. Choice C is incorrect because disclosing a list of clients participating in the study violates confidentiality. Choice D is incorrect as the description of the data evaluation framework is important but not as critical as ensuring participants know they can leave the study at will.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Crackles in the lung bases
• B. Oxygen saturation of 95%
• C. Heart rate of 88/min
• D. Frequent productive cough

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Crackles in the lung bases. In a client with pneumonia, crackles in the lung bases can indicate fluid accumulation, suggesting worsening respiratory status. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice B, an oxygen saturation of 95%, is within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. Choice C, a heart rate of 88/min, is also within normal limits and does not indicate an urgent need for intervention. Choice D, a frequent productive cough, is a common symptom in pneumonia and may not require immediate reporting unless it is severe or worsening. Therefore, crackles in the lung bases are the most concerning finding that warrants prompt attention.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Client reports taking ibuprofen daily
• B. Client has a history of asthma
• C. Client reports drinking one glass of wine daily
• D. Client has a history of diverticulitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ibuprofen is an NSAID that can increase the risk of bleeding during a colonoscopy due to its effects on platelet function. It is important to report this finding to the provider to consider alternative pain management options. Choices B, C, and D are not the most pertinent to report for a colonoscopy. Asthma and a history of diverticulitis are relevant medical history but do not directly impact the colonoscopy procedure. Drinking one glass of wine daily is not a concern specifically related to the colonoscopy procedure.

4. A client has a nasogastric tube and is receiving intermittent enteral feedings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?

• A. Administer a bolus feeding over 10 minutes.
• B. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings.
• C. Flush the tube with 10 mL of sterile water before feedings.
• D. Position the client on the left side during feedings.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To prevent aspiration in clients with a nasogastric tube receiving intermittent enteral feedings, the nurse should elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of the feeding contents. Administering a bolus feeding over 10 minutes (choice A) may not prevent aspiration as effectively as elevating the head of the bed. Flushing the tube with sterile water before feedings (choice C) is important for tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration. Positioning the client on the left side during feedings (choice D) is not the recommended action to prevent aspiration; elevating the head of the bed is more effective.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on diuretics?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Patients on diuretics are at risk of developing hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion by the kidneys. Hypokalemia can lead to serious consequences such as cardiac arrhythmias. Hyponatremia (choice B) is an imbalance of sodium levels and is not typically associated with diuretic use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is the opposite condition where potassium levels are elevated and is less common in patients on diuretics. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is an excess of calcium in the blood and is not directly related to diuretic use. Therefore, monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial in patients taking diuretics.

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