a nurse is planning care for a client who has heart failure and is at risk for developing pulmonary edema which of the following interventions should
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. A client with heart failure at risk for pulmonary edema should receive which intervention to improve oxygenation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is the appropriate intervention for a client at risk for pulmonary edema as it helps improve oxygenation by delivering a high concentration of oxygen. Placing the client in a supine position can exacerbate pulmonary edema by increasing venous return to the heart, leading to fluid overload. Encouraging increased fluid intake is contraindicated in clients with heart failure and at risk for pulmonary edema, as it can worsen fluid accumulation. Elevating the client's legs when in bed is more appropriate for clients with conditions such as venous insufficiency or edema in the lower extremities, not for pulmonary edema.

2. What is the priority nursing action for a patient with respiratory distress?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing action for a patient with respiratory distress is to administer oxygen. Oxygen therapy is crucial in improving oxygenation levels and relieving respiratory distress, making it the top priority intervention. Repositioning the patient, administering bronchodilators, or providing chest physiotherapy may be necessary interventions depending on the underlying cause, but ensuring adequate oxygen supply should take precedence in addressing respiratory distress.

3. A patient refused a newly open fentanyl patch. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a patient refuses a newly open fentanyl patch is to ask another nurse to witness the disposal of the new patch. This is essential for accountability and ensuring proper disposal procedures are followed. Choice B is incorrect because disposing of the patch in a sharps container without a witness does not ensure proper accountability. Choice C is incorrect as sending the patch back to the pharmacy is not the appropriate action for disposal. Choice D is incorrect because although documenting the refusal is important, it is also crucial to ensure proper disposal of the unused patch by having another nurse witness it.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients should eat a snack when their blood glucose level is low, typically below 70-100 mg/dL, not when it is high. Eating a snack when the blood glucose level is above 200 mg/dL can exacerbate hyperglycemia. Choice A is correct as checking blood glucose levels regularly is important in managing diabetes. Choice C is also correct as adherence to prescribed insulin therapy is crucial. Choice D is incorrect as physical activity can help lower blood glucose levels, especially when they are above the target range.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving heparin to treat deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A platelet count of 80,000/mm3 is below the normal range and should be reported to the provider due to the risk of bleeding. Heparin can cause a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, leading to a decrease in platelet count and an increased risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 38 seconds, hemoglobin of 15 g/dL, and an INR of 1.0 are within normal ranges and not directly concerning in this scenario. Platelet count is crucial to monitor in clients receiving heparin therapy to ensure adequate clotting function and prevent bleeding complications.

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