Nursing Elites

1. Which diagnostic test is used to confirm tuberculosis (TB) infection?

• A. Chest X-ray
• B. Sputum culture
• C. Skin test (Mantoux)
• D. MRI

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Mantoux skin test, also known as the Tuberculin Skin Test (TST), is used to confirm tuberculosis (TB) infection. This test involves injecting a small amount of tuberculin protein derivative under the top layer of the skin and then evaluating the immune system's response to the protein. A positive reaction indicates exposure to the TB bacteria. Chest X-rays are used to detect abnormalities in the lungs caused by TB but are not confirmatory. Sputum culture is used to identify the presence of TB bacteria in the sputum. MRIs are not typically used as a primary diagnostic tool for TB.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action should be included?

• A. Encourage the client to floss daily.
• B. Remove fresh flowers from the client's room.
• C. Provide the client with a stool softener.
• D. Avoid serving the client raw vegetables.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action to include in the care plan for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Providing a stool softener helps prevent straining during bowel movements, reducing the risk of bleeding episodes. Encouraging the client to floss daily (choice A) is important for oral hygiene but is not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (choice B) is more relevant for clients with neutropenia to reduce the risk of infection. Avoiding serving the client raw vegetables (choice D) is important for clients with compromised immune systems but is not specifically related to thrombocytopenia.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for potassium chloride. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg
• B. Heart rate 88/min
• C. Serum potassium 3.2 mEq/L
• D. Sodium 136 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range, indicating hypokalemia. Before administering potassium chloride, which is used to treat low potassium levels, the nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and potential adjustment of the treatment plan. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly relate to the need for potassium chloride administration.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and is receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse notes early decelerations. Which of the following should the nurse expect?

• A. Fetal hypoxia
• B. Head compression
• C. Placenta previa
• D. Umbilical cord prolapse

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario of early decelerations noted during labor with electronic fetal monitoring, the nurse should expect head compression. Early decelerations are a normal response to fetal head compression during contractions and are not indicative of fetal distress. Choice A, fetal hypoxia, is incorrect as early decelerations are not associated with fetal oxygen deprivation. Choices C and D, placenta previa and umbilical cord prolapse, are unrelated to the scenario described and do not cause early decelerations.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Muscle weakness
• C. Hypertension
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle weakness is a common finding in clients with hypokalemia, as potassium is essential for proper muscle function. Diarrhea (choice A) is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia. Hypertension (choice C) is not typically a direct result of low potassium levels. Bradycardia (choice D) is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.

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