ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank
1. What is the priority nursing assessment for a patient who has just returned from surgery?
- A. Monitor respiratory rate
- B. Monitor blood pressure
- C. Check the surgical site
- D. Monitor heart rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the patient's respiratory rate. This assessment is essential as it ensures that the patient is breathing adequately post-surgery. Maintaining a patent airway and adequate oxygenation are the top priorities in the immediate postoperative period. Monitoring blood pressure, checking the surgical site, or monitoring heart rate are important assessments but are not the priority immediately upon the patient's return from surgery.
2. A charge nurse is teaching a group of newly licensed nurses about the correct use of restraints. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Placing a belt restraint on a school-age child who has seizures.
- B. Securing wrist restraints to the bed rails for an adolescent.
- C. Applying elbow immobilizers to an infant receiving cleft lip injury.
- D. Keeping the side rails of a toddler's crib elevated.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Keeping the side rails of a toddler's crib elevated is an appropriate use of restraints to prevent the child from falling, which is an essential safety measure. Placing a belt restraint on a school-age child with seizures (choice A) is not recommended as it can be dangerous during a seizure. Securing wrist restraints to the bed rails for an adolescent (choice B) may cause harm and should not be done routinely. Applying elbow immobilizers to an infant receiving a cleft lip injury (choice C) is not a standard practice for managing this condition and would not be appropriate.
3. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a patent ductus arteriosus. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?
- A. Continuous murmur.
- B. Absent peripheral pulses.
- C. Increased blood pressure.
- D. Bounding pulses.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A continuous murmur is a classic finding in a newborn with patent ductus arteriosus. This murmur is typically heard between the first and second heart sounds and throughout systole. Absent peripheral pulses (choice B) are not typically associated with patent ductus arteriosus. Increased blood pressure (choice C) and bounding pulses (choice D) are not commonly seen with this condition. Therefore, the correct answer is A.
4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect to be elevated?
- A. Serum sodium.
- B. Serum calcium.
- C. Serum glucose.
- D. Serum amylase.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Serum amylase levels are typically elevated in clients with acute pancreatitis as it is an enzyme released by the pancreas. Elevated serum sodium, calcium, or glucose levels are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.
5. A client is preparing advance directives. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of advance directives?
- A. I cannot change my instructions once I have signed them.
- B. My doctor will need to approve my advance directives.
- C. I need a witness to sign my advance directives.
- D. I have the right to refuse treatment.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I have the right to refuse treatment.' This statement shows an understanding of advance directives because they allow individuals to specify their treatment preferences in advance, including the right to refuse treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate as individuals can update or change their advance directives at any time. Choice B is incorrect because while a doctor may discuss advance directives with the client, approval is not required for the directives to be valid. Choice C is also incorrect as a witness is typically required to verify the client's signature, not the other way around.
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