a nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 2 pressure injury which of the following interventions should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 2 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Apply a hydrocolloid dressing. Applying a hydrocolloid dressing helps create a moist environment that promotes healing in clients with stage 2 pressure injuries. Choice A, cleansing the wound with povidone-iodine, is not recommended for stage 2 pressure injuries as it can be too harsh on the skin. Performing debridement as needed, as mentioned in choice C, is not typically indicated for stage 2 pressure injuries, which involve partial-thickness skin loss. Keeping the wound open to air, as stated in choice D, is also not the preferred approach for managing stage 2 pressure injuries, as maintaining a moist environment is key to promoting healing.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Monitoring blood glucose levels before meals and at bedtime is crucial for managing type 2 diabetes mellitus. Option A is incorrect because limiting protein intake is not a primary focus for diabetes management. Option B is unrelated to diabetes management and focuses on pain relief. Option D mentions reducing carbohydrate intake, which is a common dietary recommendation for managing blood sugar levels, but it is not as specific as monitoring blood glucose levels at key times.

3. What is the best way to monitor for infection in a patient with a central line?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Check the central line site daily. Monitoring the central line site daily is crucial in detecting early signs of infection, such as redness, swelling, tenderness, or drainage. By checking the site regularly, healthcare providers can take prompt action to prevent complications. Choice B, monitoring the patient's vital signs, while important in assessing overall health, may not specifically indicate an infection related to the central line. Choice C, checking the central line dressing every other day, may not be frequent enough to catch early signs of infection. Choice D, checking for signs of sepsis, is important but represents a more severe stage of infection and may occur after local signs at the central line site have already manifested.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial in patients on furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not commonly linked to furosemide therapy; therefore, they are incorrect choices.

5. A client with heart failure at risk for pulmonary edema should receive which intervention to improve oxygenation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is the appropriate intervention for a client at risk for pulmonary edema as it helps improve oxygenation by delivering a high concentration of oxygen. Placing the client in a supine position can exacerbate pulmonary edema by increasing venous return to the heart, leading to fluid overload. Encouraging increased fluid intake is contraindicated in clients with heart failure and at risk for pulmonary edema, as it can worsen fluid accumulation. Elevating the client's legs when in bed is more appropriate for clients with conditions such as venous insufficiency or edema in the lower extremities, not for pulmonary edema.

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