a hospice nurse is visiting with the son of a client who has terminal cancer the son reports sleeping very little during the past week due to caring f
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2024

1. A hospice nurse is visiting with the son of a client who has terminal cancer. The son reports sleeping very little during the past week due to caring for his mother. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering information about respite care is a therapeutic response that supports the caregiver. Choice B suggests a quick fix with sleeping pills without addressing the underlying issue of caregiver stress. Choice C, though empathetic, does not offer practical assistance or support. Choice D, while positive, does not address the son's need for rest and support.

2. A client who has glaucoma and a new prescription for timolol eyedrops is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because placing pressure on the corner of the eye after using the drops helps in better absorption. Option A is incorrect because eye drops should be placed in the conjunctival sac, not the center of the eye. Option C is incorrect because tears turning red is not an expected outcome of using timolol eyedrops. Option D is incorrect because timolol eyedrops should not appear cloudy.

3. A client with bipolar disorder and experiencing mania is under the care of a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to take frequent rest periods is an appropriate intervention for managing mania in a client with bipolar disorder. During a manic episode, individuals often have increased energy levels, decreased need for sleep, and may engage in high-risk behaviors. Encouraging regular rest periods can help reduce stimulation and promote relaxation, which may assist in stabilizing mood. Choices A and B are not as effective in managing manic symptoms, as they do not directly address the client's need for rest and relaxation. Choice D is inappropriate because placing the client in seclusion can increase feelings of anxiety and agitation, worsening the manic episode.

4. What is the priority intervention for a patient with fluid overload?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer diuretics. Diuretics help reduce excess fluid in cases of fluid overload, making it the priority intervention. Administering additional IV fluids (choice B) would exacerbate the problem by adding more fluid. Providing oral fluids (choice C) is not the priority as the excess fluid needs to be removed first. Chest physiotherapy (choice D) is not the primary intervention for fluid overload.

5. A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Substernal retractions indicate respiratory distress in a sickle-cell client, which can be a sign of acute chest syndrome. This condition is a serious complication of sickle-cell anemia characterized by chest pain, fever, cough, and shortness of breath. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial for timely intervention. Choice B, hematuria, is not typically associated with acute chest syndrome but may indicate other issues such as a urinary tract infection. Choice C, a temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F), is slightly elevated but not a specific indicator of acute chest syndrome. Choice D, sneezing, is not a typical symptom of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider in this context.

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