a nurse is planning care for a client who has tuberculosis which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent the transmission of the dis
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent the transmission of the disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Place the client in airborne isolation.' Tuberculosis is an airborne disease transmitted through droplet nuclei. Placing the client in airborne isolation helps prevent the spread of the disease to others. Choice A, placing the client in droplet isolation, is incorrect because tuberculosis is not transmitted through large droplets. Choice C, wearing a surgical mask when providing care to the client, is not sufficient as airborne precautions are necessary. Choice D, keeping the client's door closed at all times, does not directly address the prevention of disease transmission in this case.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 5.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is elevated and should be monitored in clients taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing medication. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by spironolactone. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring the potassium levels in this scenario.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a high Fowler's position during enteral feedings. This position helps prevent aspiration by promoting the downward flow of the feeding and reducing the risk of regurgitation into the lungs. Choice A is incorrect because flushing the NG tube with 0.9% sodium chloride before feedings is not directly related to preventing aspiration. Choice C is incorrect because the rate of administration does not directly impact the risk of aspiration. Choice D is incorrect because warming the formula does not specifically address the prevention of aspiration during enteral feedings.

4. A client is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 25 mL/hr is a sign of oliguria, which may indicate dehydration or kidney impairment and should be reported. A heart rate of 90/min is within the normal range (60-100/min) for adults at rest and may be expected postoperatively. A temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F) is within the normal range (36.1-37.2°C or 97-99°F) and does not indicate an immediate concern. Serosanguineous wound drainage is a common finding postoperatively and indicates a normal healing process.

5. What is the first intervention for a patient experiencing anaphylactic shock?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine as the first intervention for a patient experiencing anaphylactic shock. Epinephrine is crucial in reversing the allergic reaction and restoring cardiovascular stability. Corticosteroids (Choice B) are not the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock but may be used as an adjunct therapy. Antihistamines (Choice C) can help relieve itching and hives but are not as effective as epinephrine in treating the systemic effects of anaphylaxis. Oxygen (Choice D) may be necessary to support breathing in severe cases of anaphylaxis, but administering epinephrine takes precedence in the management of anaphylactic shock.

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