Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

• A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
• B. Receiving a formula with high osmolarity.
• C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
• D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease have a higher risk of aspiration during tube feeding due to the potential for reflux of stomach contents into the lungs. This increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. High osmolarity formulas may cause diarrhea but do not directly increase the risk of aspiration. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position actually reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the chance of regurgitation. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial is within an acceptable range and does not directly indicate a risk for aspiration.

2. A healthcare professional is assisting with the admission of a client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional expect the provider to prescribe for the client?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Disulfiram
• C. Chlordiazepoxide
• D. Phenobarbital

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chlordiazepoxide is a benzodiazepine commonly used to manage anxiety and prevent seizures during alcohol withdrawal. Haloperidol (Choice A) is an antipsychotic medication and is not typically used for alcohol withdrawal. Disulfiram (Choice B) is used in the treatment of alcohol use disorder but is not indicated for alcohol withdrawal. Phenobarbital (Choice D) may be used for alcohol withdrawal seizures but is not the first-line medication for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours.
• B. Check the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes.
• C. Obtain a prescription for restraint within 4 hours.
• D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a situation where a verbal prescription for restraints is obtained for a client experiencing acute mania, the nurse should document the client's condition every 15 minutes. This frequent documentation allows for accurate monitoring of the client's condition, ensuring safety and compliance. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary as the focus should be on monitoring the client's condition. Checking the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes (Choice B) is not directly related to the need for restraints in this scenario. Obtaining a prescription for restraint within 4 hours (Choice C) is not a priority when a verbal prescription is already obtained and immediate action is needed for the client's safety.

4. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with chest pain?

• A. Administer nitroglycerin
• B. Assess pain level
• C. Monitor vital signs
• D. Provide oxygen therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is the priority intervention for a patient with chest pain because it helps relieve chest pain by dilating coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle. Assessing pain level, monitoring vital signs, and providing oxygen therapy are important interventions as well, but administering nitroglycerin takes precedence in addressing the immediate symptom of chest pain and potential cardiac ischemia.

5. A nurse is reinforcing home safety instructions with the parent of a newborn. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the instructions?

• A. Place your baby's crib away from heat vents
• B. Place the crib close to a heater
• C. Place the crib near a window
• D. Place soft toys in the crib

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Place your baby's crib away from heat vents.' Placing the crib away from heat vents is essential to prevent the baby from becoming overheated and to reduce the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). Choice B is incorrect because placing the crib close to a heater increases the risk of overheating and poses a fire hazard. Choice C is incorrect as placing the crib near a window exposes the baby to drafts and temperature fluctuations. Choice D is incorrect as soft toys in the crib can pose a suffocation risk to the newborn.

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