Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

• A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
• B. Receiving a formula with high osmolarity.
• C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
• D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease have a higher risk of aspiration during tube feeding due to the potential for reflux of stomach contents into the lungs. This increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. High osmolarity formulas may cause diarrhea but do not directly increase the risk of aspiration. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position actually reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the chance of regurgitation. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial is within an acceptable range and does not directly indicate a risk for aspiration.

2. Which of the following is the best intervention for managing dehydration?

• A. Administer antiemetics to prevent nausea
• B. Monitor fluid and electrolyte levels
• C. Encourage the client to drink more fluids
• D. Administer intravenous fluids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best intervention for managing dehydration is to monitor fluid and electrolyte levels. This approach allows healthcare providers to assess the severity of dehydration, determine appropriate fluid replacement therapy, and prevent complications. Administering antiemetics (Choice A) may help with nausea but does not address the underlying issue of dehydration. Encouraging the client to drink more fluids (Choice C) may be appropriate for mild dehydration but can be inadequate for moderate to severe cases. Administering intravenous fluids (Choice D) is crucial for severe dehydration or cases where oral rehydration is ineffective, but monitoring fluid and electrolyte levels should precede this intervention.

3. During an initial assessment of a client, a nurse notices a discrepancy between the client's current IV infusion and the information received during the shift report. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Complete an incident report and place it in the client's medical record.
• B. Compare the current infusion with the prescription in the client's medication record.
• C. Contact the charge nurse to see if the prescription was changed.
• D. Submit a written warning for the nurse involved in the incident.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when noticing a discrepancy between the client's current IV infusion and the information received during the shift report is to compare the current infusion with the prescription in the client's medication record. This step is crucial to ensure the accuracy of the prescribed treatment and to prevent any potential harm to the client. Option A is incorrect because completing an incident report should only be done after verifying the discrepancy. Option C is incorrect as contacting the charge nurse should come after confirming the details. Option D is incorrect as submitting a written warning is not appropriate without verifying the information first.

4. What is the nurse's responsibility when caring for a client with a chest tube?

• A. Check for air leaks in the tubing every 4 hours
• B. Clamp the chest tube for 30 minutes every 4 hours
• C. Encourage deep breathing and coughing every 2 hours
• D. Keep the client in a high Fowler's position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check for air leaks in the tubing every 4 hours when caring for a client with a chest tube. This responsibility is crucial because it ensures proper chest tube function and helps prevent complications such as pneumothorax or hemothorax. Clamping the chest tube (Choice B) can lead to serious issues by causing a tension pneumothorax. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing (Choice C) is important for respiratory hygiene but is not directly related to chest tube care. Keeping the client in a high Fowler's position (Choice D) may be beneficial for some conditions but is not specific to chest tube management.

5. What should a healthcare professional prioritize when managing a client with delirium?

• A. Administering sedative medication
• B. Providing a low-stimulation environment
• C. Identifying the underlying cause of the delirium
• D. Controlling behavioral symptoms with medication

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When managing a client with delirium, the priority should be to identify the underlying cause of the delirium. Delirium can result from various triggers such as infections, medication side effects, or metabolic imbalances. By determining the root cause, healthcare professionals can provide targeted treatment and improve outcomes. Administering sedative medication (Choice A) could exacerbate delirium as these drugs can worsen confusion. While providing a low-stimulation environment (Choice B) is beneficial, it is not as critical as identifying the cause. Controlling behavioral symptoms with medication (Choice D) should only be considered after identifying and addressing the underlying cause of delirium.

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