Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

• A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
• B. Receiving a formula with high osmolarity.
• C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
• D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease have a higher risk of aspiration during tube feeding due to the potential for reflux of stomach contents into the lungs. This increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. High osmolarity formulas may cause diarrhea but do not directly increase the risk of aspiration. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position actually reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the chance of regurgitation. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial is within an acceptable range and does not directly indicate a risk for aspiration.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours.
• B. Check the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes.
• C. Obtain a prescription for restraint within 4 hours.
• D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a situation where a verbal prescription for restraints is obtained for a client experiencing acute mania, the nurse should document the client's condition every 15 minutes. This frequent documentation allows for accurate monitoring of the client's condition, ensuring safety and compliance. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary as the focus should be on monitoring the client's condition. Checking the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes (Choice B) is not directly related to the need for restraints in this scenario. Obtaining a prescription for restraint within 4 hours (Choice C) is not a priority when a verbal prescription is already obtained and immediate action is needed for the client's safety.

3. The nurse is performing triage on a group of clients in the emergency department. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A 12-year-old oozing blood from a laceration on the left thumb due to a cut from a rusty metal can
• B. A 19-year-old with a fever of 103.8°F who is able to identify her sister but not the place and time
• C. A 49-year-old with a compound fracture of the right leg who is complaining of severe pain
• D. A 65-year-old with a flushed face, dry mucous membranes, and a blood sugar of 470 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A 19-year-old with a fever of 103.8°F who is confused and unable to orient to place and time likely has a severe infection or a serious medical condition affecting the central nervous system. This client needs immediate attention as altered mental status combined with a high fever can indicate a life-threatening situation. Choices A, C, and D present important conditions that require medical care, but they are not as urgent as the 19-year-old with a high fever and confusion. The 12-year-old with a laceration may require treatment for bleeding and a tetanus shot, the 49-year-old with a compound fracture needs urgent orthopedic intervention, and the 65-year-old with a high blood sugar is concerning for hyperglycemia but can wait momentarily compared to the client with a fever and altered mental status.

4. A client with a pressure ulcer is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following is the most appropriate action?

• A. Use a phenol solution to clean the wound
• B. Place a warm compress over the wound
• C. Cleanse the wound from the center outwards
• D. Administer antibiotics prophylactically

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cleaning a wound from the center outwards is the most appropriate action as it helps prevent the spread of infection. Choice A is incorrect as phenol solutions can be harmful to the wound and delay healing. Choice B may increase the risk of infection as warmth can promote bacterial growth. Choice D is unnecessary unless there are signs of infection present.

5. What are the steps in managing a patient with a pressure ulcer?

• A. Clean the wound and apply a hydrocolloid dressing
• B. Debride necrotic tissue and apply antibiotics
• C. Apply an alginate dressing and elevate the affected area
• D. Use moisture-retentive dressings and reposition frequently

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clean the wound and apply a hydrocolloid dressing. This step is crucial in managing a pressure ulcer as it helps protect the ulcer from infection and promotes healing by creating a moist environment conducive to tissue repair. Choice B, debriding necrotic tissue and applying antibiotics, is more suitable for managing infected pressure ulcers but not as the initial step. Choice C, applying an alginate dressing and elevating the affected area, may be part of the management but is not the initial step. Choice D, using moisture-retentive dressings and repositioning frequently, is important for prevention but not the first step in managing an existing pressure ulcer.

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