a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease have a higher risk of aspiration during tube feeding due to the potential for reflux of stomach contents into the lungs. This increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. High osmolarity formulas may cause diarrhea but do not directly increase the risk of aspiration. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position actually reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the chance of regurgitation. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial is within an acceptable range and does not directly indicate a risk for aspiration.

2. What are the side effects of chemotherapy, and how should they be managed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct side effects of chemotherapy mentioned in this question are nausea and vomiting. These side effects are commonly managed with antiemetics to improve the quality of life for patients undergoing chemotherapy. Choice B (Hair loss and anemia) is incorrect as hair loss and anemia are potential side effects of chemotherapy but are not addressed in this question. Choice C (Diarrhea and fatigue) is also incorrect as it does not match the side effects provided. Choice D (Weight gain and high blood pressure) is inaccurate as these are not typical side effects of chemotherapy.

3. What is the first nursing action when caring for a client with a wound infection?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The first nursing action when caring for a client with a wound infection is to perform a wound culture before applying antibiotics. This step is crucial to identify the specific infecting organism and determine the most effective antibiotic therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because changing the dressing, cleansing the wound, or applying a wet-to-dry dressing should only be done after obtaining the culture results and starting appropriate antibiotic treatment.

4. What are the key signs of hyperkalemia and how should it be treated?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct signs of hyperkalemia include elevated potassium levels and muscle weakness. The treatment involves administering calcium gluconate to help stabilize the heart. Choice B is incorrect as hyperkalemia is characterized by elevated, not decreased, potassium levels. Choice C is incorrect as hyperkalemia does not involve elevated sodium levels, and the treatment is not sodium bicarbonate. Choice D is incorrect as hyperkalemia does not lead to low sodium levels, and sodium chloride is not the treatment for hyperkalemia.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer purified protein derivative (PPD) to a client who has suspected tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ensure the injection produces a wheal on the skin. A wheal indicates that the PPD has been administered correctly, allowing for the proper interpretation of results. Administering the injection in the client's thigh (choice B) is not the recommended site for PPD administration; it should be administered intradermally. Using an 18-gauge needle (choice C) is unnecessary and not the standard practice for PPD administration as a smaller gauge needle is preferred for intradermal injections. Massaging the site after injection (choice D) can lead to inaccurate results by dispersing the solution, so it is important to avoid touching the site after the injection to prevent altering the test results.

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