a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease have a higher risk of aspiration during tube feeding due to the potential for reflux of stomach contents into the lungs. This increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. High osmolarity formulas may cause diarrhea but do not directly increase the risk of aspiration. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position actually reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the chance of regurgitation. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial is within an acceptable range and does not directly indicate a risk for aspiration.

2. Which of the following interventions is the best to improve the healing of a pressure ulcer for a client with a low serum albumin level?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Consulting a dietitian to create a high-protein diet plan is the best intervention for a client with a low serum albumin level to promote healing. This approach ensures that the client receives the specific nutrients needed for wound healing. Providing high-calorie, high-protein supplements (choice A) may not address the specific nutritional deficiencies of the client. Administering nutritional supplements (choice C) is vague and may not target the necessary nutrients for wound healing. Increasing IV fluids (choice D) is important for hydration but does not directly address the nutritional needs of the client to improve ulcer healing.

3. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing a seizure?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient is experiencing a seizure, the immediate priority is to ensure their safety by placing them in a side-lying position. This helps prevent aspiration in case of vomiting and maintains an open airway. Administering anticonvulsant medications is not within the scope of a healthcare provider's immediate response during a seizure. Applying restraints can potentially harm the patient by restricting movement and causing injury. Monitoring for post-ictal confusion is important after the seizure has ended, but the primary concern during the seizure is ensuring the patient's safety.

4. What are the signs of an acute myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain radiating to the arm and shortness of breath. These are classic signs of an acute myocardial infarction. Choice B is incorrect because nausea, vomiting, and high fever are not typical signs of a heart attack. Choice C is incorrect as headache, confusion, and low blood pressure are not specific to myocardial infarction. Choice D is incorrect because an acute myocardial infarction typically presents with an increased heart rate, not bradycardia.

5. What are the key differences between systolic and diastolic heart failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Systolic heart failure is characterized by reduced ejection fraction, meaning the heart is not pumping effectively. Diastolic heart failure, on the other hand, is characterized by preserved ejection fraction, indicating that the heart has difficulty relaxing and filling properly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the key differences between systolic and diastolic heart failure.

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