ATI LPN
ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?
- A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
- B. Receiving a formula with high osmolarity.
- C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
- D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease have a higher risk of aspiration during tube feeding due to the potential for reflux of stomach contents into the lungs. This increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. High osmolarity formulas may cause diarrhea but do not directly increase the risk of aspiration. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position actually reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the chance of regurgitation. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial is within an acceptable range and does not directly indicate a risk for aspiration.
2. What is the correct way to assess for pitting edema?
- A. Press over the bony area for 5 seconds and release
- B. Press over the skin for 10 seconds and check for discoloration
- C. Press the area and check for the presence of rash
- D. Press the skin and assess for rebound tenderness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct way to assess for pitting edema is to press over a bony area, typically the tibia, for 5 seconds and then release. This allows for the identification of pitting edema, characterized by an indentation that persists for a few seconds. Choice B is incorrect as pitting edema assessment does not involve checking for discoloration. Choice C is incorrect as the presence of a rash is not indicative of pitting edema. Choice D is incorrect as rebound tenderness is a different assessment used for abdominal conditions, not for pitting edema.
3. A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV fluids. Which of the following should the nurse do upon noticing phlebitis at the IV site?
- A. Apply a cold compress to the site
- B. Notify the provider immediately
- C. Remove the IV catheter and restart it in another location
- D. Monitor the site for signs of infection
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Upon noticing phlebitis at the IV site, the nurse should remove the IV catheter and restart it in another location. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and leaving the IV catheter in place can lead to further complications such as infection. Applying a cold compress (Choice A) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue. Notifying the provider immediately (Choice B) is important, but the immediate action to prevent complications is to remove the IV catheter. Monitoring the site for signs of infection (Choice D) is necessary, but the priority action is to remove and reinsert the IV catheter to prevent worsening of the phlebitis.
4. A nurse is teaching a client who has heart failure about fluid restrictions. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Limit fluid intake to 3 liters per day
- B. Limit fluid intake to 1-2 liters per day
- C. Drink 4 liters of water per day
- D. Restrict water intake to 1 liter per day
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Limit fluid intake to 1-2 liters per day.' For clients with heart failure, fluid restriction is essential to prevent fluid overload. Restricting fluid intake to 1-2 liters per day helps maintain fluid balance and prevents exacerbation of heart failure symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because consuming 3 liters, 4 liters, or limiting water intake to 1 liter per day, respectively, can lead to fluid overload in clients with heart failure.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Polyuria.
- B. Dehydration.
- C. Hyponatremia.
- D. Hyperglycemia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyponatremia. In SIADH, there is excessive release of antidiuretic hormone, causing water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Polyuria (choice A) is increased urination, which is not a typical finding in SIADH. Dehydration (choice B) is the loss of body fluids, which is opposite to the fluid retention seen in SIADH. Hyperglycemia (choice D) is elevated blood sugar levels and is not directly related to SIADH.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access