ATI LPN
ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?
- A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
- B. Receiving a formula with high osmolarity.
- C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
- D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease have a higher risk of aspiration during tube feeding due to the potential for reflux of stomach contents into the lungs. This increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. High osmolarity formulas may cause diarrhea but do not directly increase the risk of aspiration. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position actually reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the chance of regurgitation. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial is within an acceptable range and does not directly indicate a risk for aspiration.
2. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for haloperidol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report to the provider?
- A. Weight gain.
- B. Dry mouth.
- C. Sedation.
- D. Shuffling gait.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Shuffling gait. A shuffling gait can indicate extrapyramidal symptoms, a potentially serious side effect of haloperidol. Extrapyramidal symptoms include movement disorders such as dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonism, and tardive dyskinesia. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as urgent or indicative of serious complications compared to a shuffling gait.
3. A nurse is teaching a client how to administer enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Inject the medication into the muscle of the thigh
- B. Massage the injection site after administration
- C. Pinch the skin before injecting
- D. Administer the medication at the same time each day
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for administering enoxaparin is to pinch the skin before injecting. Pinching the skin helps create a proper fold for subcutaneous injections like enoxaparin, ensuring proper delivery of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue. Choice A is incorrect because enoxaparin should be administered subcutaneously, not into the muscle. Injecting it into the muscle can lead to complications. Choice B is incorrect because massaging the injection site after administration can increase the risk of bleeding or bruising due to the anticoagulant properties of enoxaparin. Choice D is incorrect as it is a general instruction and does not specifically relate to the administration of enoxaparin.
4. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with hypertensive crisis?
- A. Administer antihypertensive medications and monitor blood pressure
- B. Provide a high-sodium diet and fluid restriction
- C. Administer diuretics and provide oxygen therapy
- D. Provide IV fluids and monitor for kidney failure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis, the immediate goal is to lower blood pressure to prevent organ damage. Administering antihypertensive medications helps achieve this goal efficiently. Monitoring blood pressure is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and adjust medication as needed. Providing a high-sodium diet and fluid restriction (Choice B) can exacerbate hypertension by increasing blood pressure. Diuretics and oxygen therapy (Choice C) are not the first-line treatment for hypertensive crisis, as the priority is rapid blood pressure reduction. Providing IV fluids and monitoring for kidney failure (Choice D) are not primary interventions for managing hypertensive crisis; the focus is on blood pressure control and organ protection.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube post-surgery. What is the most important assessment?
- A. Ensure the chest tube is clamped periodically
- B. Check for air leaks and ensure proper chest tube function
- C. Encourage deep breathing and coughing every 2 hours
- D. Ensure the client is positioned in a high Fowler's position
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Check for air leaks and ensure proper chest tube function.' This is the most important assessment for a client with a chest tube post-surgery because it ensures that the chest tube is functioning properly. Checking for air leaks helps prevent complications such as pneumothorax or hemothorax. Choice A is incorrect because clamping the chest tube periodically can lead to serious complications and should not be done unless specifically ordered by a healthcare provider. Choice C is important for promoting lung expansion but is not the most critical assessment related to the chest tube. Choice D is also important for respiratory function but is not the priority when assessing a chest tube post-surgery.
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