ATI LPN
ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?
- A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
- B. Receiving a formula with high osmolarity.
- C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
- D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease have a higher risk of aspiration during tube feeding due to the potential for reflux of stomach contents into the lungs. This increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. High osmolarity formulas may cause diarrhea but do not directly increase the risk of aspiration. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position actually reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the chance of regurgitation. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial is within an acceptable range and does not directly indicate a risk for aspiration.
2. A nurse is collecting data from a client who delivered a full-term newborn 16 hr ago. The nurse notes excessive lochia discharge. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer oxytocin
- B. Perform fundal massage
- C. Administer IV fluids
- D. Call the provider
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Performing fundal massage is the priority action in this scenario. Fundal massage helps contract the uterus, which is essential in reducing excessive lochia postpartum. Administering oxytocin may be indicated later, but fundal massage should be the initial intervention to address the issue. Administering IV fluids may not directly address the cause of excessive lochia, and calling the provider should come after implementing immediate nursing interventions.
3. Which of the following is an early indication that a tracheostomy client requires suctioning?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Irritability
- C. Hypotension
- D. Decreased respiratory rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Irritability is indeed an early sign that a tracheostomy client may require suctioning. When a tracheostomy client becomes irritable, it can indicate that there is a need for suctioning to clear the airway. Bradycardia (choice A) refers to a slow heart rate and is not typically a direct indication for suctioning. Hypotension (choice C) indicates low blood pressure and is not specifically related to the need for suctioning. Decreased respiratory rate (choice D) can be a sign of respiratory distress, but irritability is a more direct and early indication of the need for suctioning in a tracheostomy client.
4. When collecting data from a client with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Amnesia
- B. Hypervigilance
- C. Hallucinations
- D. Severe agitation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct manifestation to expect when collecting data from a client with PTSD is hypervigilance. Hypervigilance refers to increased alertness, which is a common symptom of PTSD. This heightened state of awareness is characterized by an exaggerated startle response, being easily startled, and constantly scanning the environment for potential threats. Amnesia (choice A) is not typically a primary manifestation of PTSD; it is more commonly associated with dissociative disorders. Hallucinations (choice C) involve perceiving things that are not present and are not typically a hallmark symptom of PTSD. Severe agitation (choice D) may occur in individuals with PTSD, but hypervigilance is a more specific and common manifestation associated with this disorder.
5. A client has a prescription for ciprofloxacin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with an antacid if you experience gastrointestinal upset.
- B. You should limit your caffeine intake while taking this medication.
- C. This medication may cause your urine to turn dark brown.
- D. You should avoid taking this medication with dairy products.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'You should avoid taking this medication with dairy products.' Ciprofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products as they can interfere with the absorption of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because ciprofloxacin should not be taken with antacids containing aluminum or magnesium. Choice B is incorrect as there is no specific limitation on caffeine intake associated with ciprofloxacin. Choice C is incorrect as ciprofloxacin does not typically cause urine to turn dark brown.
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