a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease have a higher risk of aspiration during tube feeding due to the potential for reflux of stomach contents into the lungs. This increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. High osmolarity formulas may cause diarrhea but do not directly increase the risk of aspiration. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position actually reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the chance of regurgitation. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial is within an acceptable range and does not directly indicate a risk for aspiration.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who is taking warfarin about food and medication interactions. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: Green leafy vegetables - Green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, which can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin. Tomatoes, apples, and broccoli are not contraindicated with warfarin therapy. While they are healthy choices, they do not have a significant impact on warfarin's effectiveness.

3. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with suspected myocardial infarction (MI)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen and seeking emergency help are crucial initial steps in managing a patient with suspected myocardial infarction (MI). Oxygen helps to improve oxygenation to the heart muscle, reducing its workload and preventing further damage. Calling for emergency help ensures timely access to advanced medical care, including interventions like thrombolytics. Monitoring vital signs and providing pain relief are important but secondary to the immediate need for oxygen and emergency assistance. Providing nitroglycerin and thrombolytics should be done under medical supervision and following appropriate protocols, not as the first step. Administering diuretics and altering the patient's diet are not indicated in the acute management of MI.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who is to undergo total knee arthroplasty about postoperative care. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply ice to the affected knee for 24-48 hours. Applying ice helps to reduce inflammation and pain after knee surgery, promoting healing. Choice A is incorrect because heat is not recommended postoperatively, as it can increase swelling. Choice B is incorrect because pillows should be placed under the knee to keep it elevated. Choice C is incorrect because early mobilization is essential for preventing complications such as blood clots.

5. When collecting data from a client with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct manifestation to expect when collecting data from a client with PTSD is hypervigilance. Hypervigilance refers to increased alertness, which is a common symptom of PTSD. This heightened state of awareness is characterized by an exaggerated startle response, being easily startled, and constantly scanning the environment for potential threats. Amnesia (choice A) is not typically a primary manifestation of PTSD; it is more commonly associated with dissociative disorders. Hallucinations (choice C) involve perceiving things that are not present and are not typically a hallmark symptom of PTSD. Severe agitation (choice D) may occur in individuals with PTSD, but hypervigilance is a more specific and common manifestation associated with this disorder.

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