ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor
1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a leg fracture and reports severe pain. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take first?
- A. Administer pain medication
- B. Reposition the client's leg
- C. Elevate the client's leg
- D. Check the client's neurovascular status
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Checking the client's neurovascular status is the priority when caring for a client with severe pain after a leg fracture. This assessment is crucial to identify any signs of vascular compromise or nerve damage, such as compartment syndrome. Administering pain medication can help alleviate the pain but should only be done after ensuring the client's neurovascular status is stable. Repositioning or elevating the leg may worsen the condition if there are underlying vascular issues, making these options lower in priority than assessing neurovascular status.
2. A nurse in a long-term care facility is auscultating the lung sounds of a client who reports shortness of breath and increased fatigue. The nurse should report which of the following to the provider after hearing this sound?
- A. Fine crackles
- B. Rhonchi
- C. Wheezing
- D. Stridor
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fine crackles. Fine crackles suggest fluid in the lungs, which could indicate a serious respiratory issue like pulmonary edema. This sound should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and possible intervention. Rhonchi (choice B) are low-pitched wheezing sounds often caused by secretions in the larger airways, wheezing (choice C) is a high-pitched whistling sound usually caused by narrowed airways, and stridor (choice D) is a high-pitched sound heard on inspiration that indicates upper airway obstruction. While these sounds also require attention, fine crackles are more indicative of fluid accumulation in the lungs, making them the priority for reporting in this scenario.
3. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with dehydration?
- A. Monitor skin turgor and check urine output
- B. Assess for jugular venous distention
- C. Auscultate lung sounds and monitor for fever
- D. Monitor for cyanosis and increased respiratory rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: When assessing a patient for dehydration, healthcare professionals should monitor skin turgor, as it indicates the degree of dehydration, and check urine output, as decreased urine output can be a sign of dehydration. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly assess for dehydration. Assessing for jugular venous distention (B) is more relevant for heart failure, auscultating lung sounds and monitoring for fever (C) are more relevant for respiratory infections, and monitoring for cyanosis and increased respiratory rate (D) are more indicative of respiratory distress rather than dehydration.
4. The nurse is performing triage on a group of clients in the emergency department. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
- A. A 12-year-old oozing blood from a laceration on the left thumb due to a cut from a rusty metal can
- B. A 19-year-old with a fever of 103.8°F who is able to identify her sister but not the place and time
- C. A 49-year-old with a compound fracture of the right leg who is complaining of severe pain
- D. A 65-year-old with a flushed face, dry mucous membranes, and a blood sugar of 470 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A 19-year-old with a fever of 103.8°F who is confused and unable to orient to place and time likely has a severe infection or a serious medical condition affecting the central nervous system. This client needs immediate attention as altered mental status combined with a high fever can indicate a life-threatening situation. Choices A, C, and D present important conditions that require medical care, but they are not as urgent as the 19-year-old with a high fever and confusion. The 12-year-old with a laceration may require treatment for bleeding and a tetanus shot, the 49-year-old with a compound fracture needs urgent orthopedic intervention, and the 65-year-old with a high blood sugar is concerning for hyperglycemia but can wait momentarily compared to the client with a fever and altered mental status.
5. What is the best strategy for managing fatigue in a client who has had an acute myocardial infarction and is concerned about self-care?
- A. Instruct the client to rest completely and avoid all self-care tasks
- B. Encourage the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with frequent rest periods
- C. Assign assistive personnel to complete all self-care tasks
- D. Ask the client's family to assist with self-care tasks
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best strategy for managing fatigue in a client who has had an acute myocardial infarction and is concerned about self-care is to encourage the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with frequent rest periods. This approach helps the client regain independence while managing fatigue effectively. Choice A is incorrect because complete rest without any self-care tasks may hinder recovery and independence. Choice C is not the best option as it does not promote the client's independence. Choice D, while involving family support, does not empower the client to regain self-care abilities.
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