Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with suspected myocardial infarction (MI)?

• A. Administer oxygen and call for emergency help
• B. Monitor vital signs and provide pain relief
• C. Provide nitroglycerin and thrombolytics
• D. Administer diuretics and provide a high-protein diet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen and seeking emergency help are crucial initial steps in managing a patient with suspected myocardial infarction (MI). Oxygen helps to improve oxygenation to the heart muscle, reducing its workload and preventing further damage. Calling for emergency help ensures timely access to advanced medical care, including interventions like thrombolytics. Monitoring vital signs and providing pain relief are important but secondary to the immediate need for oxygen and emergency assistance. Providing nitroglycerin and thrombolytics should be done under medical supervision and following appropriate protocols, not as the first step. Administering diuretics and altering the patient's diet are not indicated in the acute management of MI.

2. A client with a pressure ulcer is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following is the most appropriate action?

• A. Use a phenol solution to clean the wound
• B. Place a warm compress over the wound
• C. Cleanse the wound from the center outwards
• D. Administer antibiotics prophylactically

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cleaning a wound from the center outwards is the most appropriate action as it helps prevent the spread of infection. Choice A is incorrect as phenol solutions can be harmful to the wound and delay healing. Choice B may increase the risk of infection as warmth can promote bacterial growth. Choice D is unnecessary unless there are signs of infection present.

3. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What is the next step the nurse should take?

• A. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication
• B. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider
• C. Apply a cold compress over the IV site
• D. Increase the IV flow rate to prevent dehydration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops phlebitis at the IV site, the nurse's immediate action should be to discontinue the IV and notify the healthcare provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and leaving the IV in place can lead to complications such as infection or thrombosis. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (choice A) may not address the root cause and delay the necessary intervention. Applying a cold compress (choice C) may provide temporary relief but does not address the need to remove the source of inflammation. Increasing the IV flow rate (choice D) is contraindicated as it can exacerbate the phlebitis by causing more irritation to the vein.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a brainstem injury. The nurse should expect the client to exhibit which of the following findings?

• A. Decerebrate posturing.
• B. Hypervigilance.
• C. Absence of deep tendon reflexes.
• D. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decerebrate posturing. Decerebrate posturing is an abnormal body posture characterized by rigid extension of the arms and legs, which indicates severe brainstem injury affecting the midbrain and pons. This posture suggests dysfunction or damage to neural pathways controlling muscle tone. Choice B, hypervigilance, is not typically associated with brainstem injury but rather with increased alertness and arousal. Choice C, absence of deep tendon reflexes, is not a specific finding related to brainstem injury. Choice D, a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15, indicates a fully awake and alert state, which is not expected in a client with a brainstem injury.

5. Which dietary advice is most appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase intake of fruits and vegetables
• B. Limit intake of potassium-rich foods
• C. Increase intake of dairy products
• D. Reduce intake of protein-rich foods

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate dietary advice for a client with chronic kidney disease is to limit intake of potassium-rich foods. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys have difficulty filtering potassium from the blood, leading to high levels that can be harmful. Therefore, reducing potassium intake is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are not the best options for individuals with chronic kidney disease. Increasing intake of fruits and vegetables (choice A) may actually increase potassium consumption. Increasing intake of dairy products (choice C) can lead to higher phosphorus and potassium levels. Reducing protein-rich foods (choice D) is not the primary focus in the early stages of chronic kidney disease, as protein is necessary for overall health unless kidney function declines significantly.

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