Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with suspected myocardial infarction (MI)?

• A. Administer oxygen and call for emergency help
• B. Monitor vital signs and provide pain relief
• C. Provide nitroglycerin and thrombolytics
• D. Administer diuretics and provide a high-protein diet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen and seeking emergency help are crucial initial steps in managing a patient with suspected myocardial infarction (MI). Oxygen helps to improve oxygenation to the heart muscle, reducing its workload and preventing further damage. Calling for emergency help ensures timely access to advanced medical care, including interventions like thrombolytics. Monitoring vital signs and providing pain relief are important but secondary to the immediate need for oxygen and emergency assistance. Providing nitroglycerin and thrombolytics should be done under medical supervision and following appropriate protocols, not as the first step. Administering diuretics and altering the patient's diet are not indicated in the acute management of MI.

2. What are the common signs and symptoms of dehydration in the elderly?

• A. Dry mouth, confusion, and decreased skin turgor
• B. Increased heart rate and muscle cramps
• C. Fever, rapid breathing, and increased urine output
• D. Increased thirst and difficulty walking

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Dehydration in the elderly is often signaled by dry mouth, confusion, and decreased skin turgor due to reduced fluid intake. Choice A is the correct answer as these are common signs and symptoms of dehydration in the elderly.\nIncorrect Rationales: Option B (Increased heart rate and muscle cramps) are more associated with conditions like hyperthyroidism or electrolyte imbalances rather than dehydration. Option C (Fever, rapid breathing, and increased urine output) are signs of other medical conditions such as infections or diabetes insipidus. Option D (Increased thirst and difficulty walking) can be seen in various situations but are not specific signs of dehydration in the elderly.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for an abdominal paracentesis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take to prepare the client for this procedure?

• A. Assist the client to void
• B. Instruct the client to hold their breath
• C. Place the client in a lateral recumbent position
• D. Prepare to administer a sedative

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client to void before a paracentesis is essential to reduce the risk of bladder injury during the procedure. Voiding helps empty the bladder, preventing accidental puncture during the insertion of the needle. Instructing the client to hold their breath is incorrect and can increase the risk of complications. Placing the client in a lateral recumbent position is not directly related to bladder safety during a paracentesis. Preparing to administer a sedative is not a standard preparation for this procedure and is not aimed at preventing bladder injury.

4. When receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients, which time-management strategy should the nurse plan to implement?

• A. Prepare a priority list of client needs for the shift
• B. Complete less time-consuming tasks first
• C. Handle urgent client needs at the end of the shift
• D. Work on each client as they are seen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Preparing a priority list of client needs for the shift is the most effective time-management strategy for a nurse receiving change-of-shift report. This approach helps the nurse identify and address the most urgent client needs first, ensuring efficient use of time. Choice B is incorrect because focusing on less time-consuming tasks first may result in crucial tasks being delayed. Choice C is incorrect as urgent client needs should be handled promptly, not postponed until the end of the shift. Choice D is inefficient as it does not prioritize tasks based on urgency, potentially leading to delays in addressing critical client needs.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5
• B. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
• C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.

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