what are the early signs of heart failure in a patient
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024

1. What are the early signs of heart failure in a patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shortness of breath and weight gain. Early signs of heart failure typically manifest as shortness of breath due to fluid accumulation in the lungs and weight gain due to fluid retention in the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fatigue and chest pain are symptoms commonly associated with heart conditions but are not specific early signs of heart failure. Nausea and vomiting are not typically early signs of heart failure. Cough can be a symptom of heart failure, but it is usually associated with other symptoms like shortness of breath rather than being an isolated early sign. Elevated blood pressure is not an early sign of heart failure; in fact, heart failure is more commonly associated with low blood pressure.

2. A client with a tracheostomy is exhibiting signs of respiratory distress. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with a tracheostomy is experiencing respiratory distress, the priority action is to suction the tracheostomy to clear the airway and improve breathing. This helps remove secretions or blockages that may be causing the distress. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice A) can be done after ensuring immediate airway clearance. Administering a bronchodilator (Choice C) would not address the primary issue of airway clearance in a tracheostomy patient. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (Choice D) may be necessary but should come after ensuring the airway is clear.

3. What are the key steps in administering oral medications to a patient with dysphagia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Crush medications and mix with food. When administering oral medications to a patient with dysphagia, crushing the medications and mixing them with food is a common method to aid in swallowing. Choice B is incorrect because using a straw could pose a choking hazard for patients with dysphagia. Choice C is incorrect as thickened liquids may not always be suitable for all medications. Choice D is incorrect because having the patient lie flat can increase the risk of aspiration, which is not recommended for patients with dysphagia.

4. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

5. What is the most important intervention for a client with delirium?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to identify any reversible causes of delirium. Delirium can be caused by various factors such as infections, medications, or metabolic imbalances. Addressing these underlying causes can help resolve delirium. Administering sedative medication (Choice A) can worsen delirium by further altering mental status. Providing a low-stimulation environment (Choice C) is helpful to manage delirium symptoms, but it is not the most important intervention. Increasing environmental stimulation (Choice D) is contraindicated in delirium as it can exacerbate confusion and agitation.

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