Nursing Elites

1. What are the early signs of heart failure in a patient?

• A. Shortness of breath and weight gain
• B. Fatigue and chest pain
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Cough and elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shortness of breath and weight gain. Early signs of heart failure typically manifest as shortness of breath due to fluid accumulation in the lungs and weight gain due to fluid retention in the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fatigue and chest pain are symptoms commonly associated with heart conditions but are not specific early signs of heart failure. Nausea and vomiting are not typically early signs of heart failure. Cough can be a symptom of heart failure, but it is usually associated with other symptoms like shortness of breath rather than being an isolated early sign. Elevated blood pressure is not an early sign of heart failure; in fact, heart failure is more commonly associated with low blood pressure.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical records of a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following is an expected finding?

• A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
• B. HDL level of 90 mg/dL
• C. Norton scale score of 18
• D. Braden scale score of 20

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, which is commonly associated with pressure ulcers. This finding suggests that the client may be at risk for developing or already has a pressure ulcer due to malnutrition. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 90 mg/dL (Choice B) is not directly related to pressure ulcers. The Norton scale (Choice C) is used to assess a client's risk of developing pressure ulcers, not as a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. The Braden scale (Choice D) is also a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer.

3. What is the correct procedure for taking a telephone order from a provider?

• A. State patient name, drug, dose, route, frequency, and read back the order
• B. State the medication and ask for a witness to listen to the order
• C. Write down the order and verify with the provider within 12 hours
• D. Have the provider verify the order during the next in-person visit

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct procedure for taking a telephone order from a provider is to state the patient's name, drug, dose, route, frequency, and then read back the order to ensure accuracy. This process helps in preventing errors and ensures that all relevant information is correctly documented. Choice B is incorrect because having a witness listen to the order is not a standard practice and may not guarantee accuracy. Choice C is incorrect as verifying the order within 12 hours may lead to delays in patient care. Choice D is incorrect because waiting for the provider to verify the order during the next in-person visit could result in a significant delay in administering necessary medication.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication into the client's nondominant arm.
• B. Pull the skin laterally before inserting the needle.
• C. Massage the injection site after administration.
• D. Pinch the skin between the thumb and forefinger.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering enoxaparin subcutaneously is to pinch the skin between the thumb and forefinger. Pinching the skin helps to lift the subcutaneous tissue, reducing the risk of injecting into the muscle. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not relevant as the injection site for enoxaparin is typically in the abdomen or thigh, not the arm. Choice B is incorrect as pulling the skin laterally is not a recommended technique for subcutaneous injections. Choice C is also incorrect as massaging the injection site after administration can increase the risk of bleeding or bruising.

5. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about a clear liquid diet. What should the client avoid?

• A. Lemon-lime sports drinks
• B. Orange sherbet
• C. Black coffee
• D. Ginger ale

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Ginger ale. A clear liquid diet includes fluids that are see-through and easily digestible. Ginger ale is a carbonated beverage that is allowed on a clear liquid diet. Orange sherbet, choice B, is not suitable for a clear liquid diet as it contains dairy products and solid particles, which are not transparent. Lemon-lime sports drinks, choice A, may contain added colorings or particles that are not allowed on a clear liquid diet. Black coffee, choice C, is also not recommended on a clear liquid diet as it is not a clear liquid and contains substances that may be hard to digest.

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