ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024
1. What are the early signs of heart failure in a patient?
- A. Shortness of breath and weight gain
- B. Fatigue and chest pain
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Cough and elevated blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shortness of breath and weight gain. Early signs of heart failure typically manifest as shortness of breath due to fluid accumulation in the lungs and weight gain due to fluid retention in the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fatigue and chest pain are symptoms commonly associated with heart conditions but are not specific early signs of heart failure. Nausea and vomiting are not typically early signs of heart failure. Cough can be a symptom of heart failure, but it is usually associated with other symptoms like shortness of breath rather than being an isolated early sign. Elevated blood pressure is not an early sign of heart failure; in fact, heart failure is more commonly associated with low blood pressure.
2. A client is undergoing radiation therapy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent skin irritation?
- A. Apply heat packs to the area
- B. Use perfumed soap to cleanse the area
- C. Keep the area moist with lotion
- D. Avoid sun exposure to the treated area
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Avoiding sun exposure is crucial to prevent skin irritation and burns in clients undergoing radiation therapy. Radiation therapy makes the skin more sensitive to sunlight, increasing the risk of skin damage. Applying heat packs (choice A) can exacerbate skin irritation as heat can further irritate the skin that is already sensitive due to radiation. Using perfumed soap (choice B) can further irritate the skin due to its harsh chemicals, potentially worsening skin reactions. While keeping the area moist with lotion (choice C) may seem beneficial, some lotions contain ingredients that can worsen skin reactions during radiation therapy. Therefore, avoiding sun exposure to the treated area (choice D) is the most appropriate action to prevent skin irritation and damage during radiation therapy.
3. A client is receiving IV fluids and has developed phlebitis. What is the next step the nurse should take?
- A. Monitor the site for further swelling
- B. Remove the catheter and place it in another site
- C. Reduce the flow rate of IV fluids
- D. Switch to oral hydration
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct next step when a client develops phlebitis while receiving IV fluids is to remove the catheter and place it in another site. Phlebitis is inflammation of a vein, and leaving the catheter in the same site can lead to further complications. Monitoring the site for further swelling, as in choice A, is not enough as the source of inflammation needs to be removed. Choice C, reducing the flow rate, may not address the underlying issue causing phlebitis. Switching to oral hydration, as in choice D, is not necessary for addressing phlebitis related to IV fluid administration.
4. A nurse is caring for an infant who is receiving IV fluids for dehydration. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a positive response to the therapy?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Increased urine output
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Increased urine output is a positive sign that the IV fluids are effectively treating dehydration. Tachycardia (choice A) and hypotension (choice B) are signs of dehydration and would not be considered positive responses to therapy. Diarrhea (choice D) can worsen dehydration and is not a positive response to IV fluid therapy.
5. A nurse manager is updating protocols for belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?
- A. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
- B. Attach the restraints to a non-moving part of the bed.
- C. Avoid requesting a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive.
- D. Remove the client's restraints based on the client's condition.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Document the client's condition every 15 minutes. When using belt restraints, it is crucial to document the client's condition regularly to ensure their safety and well-being. This guideline allows for ongoing assessment of the client's need for restraints and any potential adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed frame but to a non-moving part of the bed to prevent harm in case of bed movement. Choice C is incorrect as PRN (as needed) restraint prescription should not be a routine practice and should only be considered after other interventions have been attempted. Choice D is incorrect as restraints should be removed and reevaluated based on the client's condition, not solely on a fixed time schedule.
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