Nursing Elites

1. What is the first step in managing a client with delirium?

• A. Administer sedative medication to calm the client
• B. Identify any reversible causes of delirium
• C. Limit environmental stimulation to reduce anxiety
• D. Administer antipsychotic medication to control behavior

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first step in managing a client with delirium is to identify any reversible causes of delirium. This is crucial because addressing the underlying cause can help in resolving delirium more effectively. Administering sedative or antipsychotic medications without addressing the root cause may not be helpful and can even worsen the condition. Limiting environmental stimulation, although important, is not the primary step in managing delirium.

2. What should a healthcare professional do when a client with anorexia nervosa insists on working out constantly?

• A. Allow the client to workout and continue their regimen
• B. Restrict the client's workout regimen to one hour a day
• C. Discuss the risks of over-exercising with the client
• D. Speak to the client privately to uncover the source of the obsession

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When dealing with a client with anorexia nervosa who insists on working out constantly, it is crucial to address the situation sensitively. Speaking to the client privately to uncover the source of the obsession is the most appropriate action. This approach allows the healthcare professional to understand the underlying reasons for the behavior and work towards a solution together. Choices A and B could potentially exacerbate the client's condition by either enabling the behavior or imposing restrictions without addressing the root cause. While choice C is important, simply discussing the risks may not address the client's compulsion to exercise excessively.

3. A nurse is caring for a 37-year-old woman with metastatic ovarian cancer admitted for nausea and vomiting. The physician orders total parenteral nutrition (TPN), a nutritional consult, and diet recall. Which of the following is the BEST indication that the patient's nutritional status has improved after 4 days?

• A. The patient eats most of the food served to her
• B. The patient has gained 1 pound since admission
• C. The patient's albumin level is 4.0mg/dL
• D. The patient's hemoglobin is 8.5g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An improved albumin level is the best indicator of improved nutritional status after TPN. Albumin is a key protein that reflects the body's overall nutritional status and is commonly used to assess nutritional health. Choices A, B, and D are not as reliable indicators of improved nutritional status. Choice A may not accurately reflect nutritional improvement as it could be influenced by factors other than nutrition. Choice B may indicate fluid retention or loss rather than true nutritional improvement. Choice D, hemoglobin level, is more related to anemia and oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, rather than nutritional status.

4. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement for a client with dementia who is at risk of falling?

• A. Keep the bed in the lowest position
• B. Raise all four side rails to prevent falls
• C. Assist with ambulation every 2 hours
• D. Use a bed exit alarm to notify staff of attempts to leave the bed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dementia at risk of falling is to use a bed exit alarm to notify staff of attempts to leave the bed. This intervention helps in preventing falls by alerting the staff when the client tries to get out of bed. Keeping the bed in the lowest position (Choice A) may not prevent falls and could make it challenging for staff to provide care. Raising all four side rails (Choice B) can be a restraint and is not recommended as it may lead to entrapment or other risks. Assisting with ambulation every 2 hours (Choice C) may not be feasible or effective in preventing falls, as the client may attempt to get out of bed at any time.

5. A patient took an overdose of acetaminophen. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer to the patient?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Acetylcysteine
• C. Flumazenil
• D. Activated charcoal

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose. It works by replenishing glutathione, a key component in detoxifying acetaminophen metabolites, thus preventing liver damage. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, not acetaminophen. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antidote. Activated charcoal is used to limit absorption in cases of poisoning, but it is not the antidote for acetaminophen overdose.

Similar Questions