what is the first step in managing a client with delirium
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet

1. What is the first step in managing a client with delirium?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first step in managing a client with delirium is to identify any reversible causes of delirium. This is crucial because addressing the underlying cause can help in resolving delirium more effectively. Administering sedative or antipsychotic medications without addressing the root cause may not be helpful and can even worsen the condition. Limiting environmental stimulation, although important, is not the primary step in managing delirium.

2. When a nurse questions a medication prescription as too extreme due to a client's advanced age and unstable status, this action exemplifies which ethical principle?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Non-maleficence. Non-maleficence refers to the ethical principle of avoiding harm. In this scenario, the nurse questions the medication prescription to prevent potential harm to the client, demonstrating the principle of non-maleficence. Choice A, fidelity, pertains to being faithful and keeping promises, which is not the focus of the scenario. Choice B, autonomy, relates to respecting a client's right to make decisions about their care, not the nurse's actions. Choice C, justice, involves fairness and equal treatment, which is not directly applicable to the nurse questioning a medication prescription to prevent harm.

3. What are the signs of an acute myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain radiating to the arm and shortness of breath. These are classic signs of an acute myocardial infarction. Choice B is incorrect because nausea, vomiting, and high fever are not typical signs of a heart attack. Choice C is incorrect as headache, confusion, and low blood pressure are not specific to myocardial infarction. Choice D is incorrect because an acute myocardial infarction typically presents with an increased heart rate, not bradycardia.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.

5. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with pneumonia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: Administering antibiotics and providing oxygen therapy are essential in managing pneumonia. Antibiotics help treat the infection caused by bacteria, while oxygen therapy improves lung function. Choice B is incorrect because bronchodilators may not be the primary treatment for pneumonia. Choice C is not the priority in pneumonia management, although fluids and rest are important for recovery. Choice D is also not a primary intervention in pneumonia management.

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