a nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client who has chronic kidney disease which of the following medications should the nurse question
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following medications should the nurse question?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which may lead to hyperkalemia in clients with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, its use should be questioned in this population. Choice A, Calcium carbonate, is commonly used to manage phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease. Choice B, Furosemide, is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but should be used with caution in kidney disease. Choice C, Epoetin alfa, is a medication used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease and anemia.

2. Which of the following is a sign of digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Bradycardia. Bradycardia, or a slower than normal heart rate, is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin is a medication commonly used to treat heart conditions, but an excess of digoxin in the body can lead to toxicity. This toxicity can manifest as various symptoms, with bradycardia being one of the most common ones. Hypertension (high blood pressure) and tachycardia (fast heart rate) are not typical signs of digoxin toxicity. Tachypnea, which refers to rapid breathing, is also not a common sign of digoxin toxicity.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A heart rate of 110/min is elevated and may indicate hypocalcemia, a potential complication following a thyroidectomy. Elevated heart rate can be a sign of hypocalcemia due to the close relationship between calcium levels and cardiac function. Option A, serum calcium level of 8 mg/dL, is within the normal range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and would not be a cause for concern post-thyroidectomy. Option B, urine output of 60 mL/hr, is within the normal range for urine output and not typically a priority finding post-thyroidectomy. Option D, a temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F), is slightly elevated but not a critical finding post-thyroidectomy unless accompanied by other symptoms.

4. Which lab value is critical for monitoring warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial for monitoring warfarin therapy as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and bleeding risks associated with the medication. INR measures the clotting tendency of blood, which is essential in determining the appropriate dosage of warfarin. Monitoring platelet count (B), sodium levels (C), or calcium levels (D) is not primarily used for assessing warfarin therapy. Platelet count is more relevant in assessing bleeding disorders, while sodium and calcium levels are typically monitored for different medical conditions unrelated to warfarin therapy.

5. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about ergonomic principles. Which of the following actions by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because using a mechanical lift is an ergonomic practice that ensures safe body mechanics and prevents injuries. Choice A is incorrect as standing with feet together when lifting a client does not promote proper body mechanics. Choice B is incorrect as raising the client's head of bed before pulling the client up is not directly related to ergonomic principles. Choice D is incorrect as placing a gait belt around the client's upper chest is a safety measure for assisting with standing but does not address ergonomic principles.

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