ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse expect to be elevated?
- A. Serum creatinine.
- B. Amylase.
- C. Hemoglobin.
- D. Blood glucose.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Amylase. Amylase is typically elevated in clients with acute pancreatitis due to inflammation of the pancreas. Elevated serum creatinine levels are more indicative of kidney dysfunction rather than pancreatitis. Hemoglobin levels are not directly related to pancreatitis. While blood glucose levels can be affected by pancreatitis, they are not typically the primary laboratory result expected to be elevated in this condition.
2. A client with liver cirrhosis is experiencing confusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL
- B. Ammonia 145 mcg/dL
- C. Albumin 4 g/dL
- D. Hemoglobin 13.5 g/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ammonia 145 mcg/dL. An elevated ammonia level can indicate hepatic encephalopathy in clients with liver cirrhosis, leading to confusion. Bilirubin (Choice A) is within the normal range, indicating adequate liver function. Albumin (Choice C) and Hemoglobin (Choice D) levels are also within normal limits and are not directly related to the client's confusion in this scenario.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Respiratory rate of 20/min
- B. Oxygen saturation of 93%
- C. Pain level of 2 on a scale of 0 to 10
- D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a blood pressure drop or other signs of morphine overdose should be reported, especially when using a PCA pump. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and do not indicate an immediate concern related to morphine administration.
4. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with a stage 3 pressure ulcer?
- A. Apply hydrocolloid dressing
- B. Provide wound debridement
- C. Change the dressing daily
- D. Elevate the affected area
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to apply a hydrocolloid dressing. Stage 3 pressure ulcers are characterized by full-thickness skin loss involving damage to or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue, which requires a moist environment for healing. Hydrocolloid dressings help maintain a moist wound environment, promote healing, and provide protection. Providing wound debridement may be necessary but is not the priority intervention at this stage. Changing the dressing daily is important for wound care but not the priority over creating an optimal healing environment. Elevating the affected area can help with circulation and reduce swelling, but it is not the priority intervention for a stage 3 pressure ulcer.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is a common concern in patients receiving loop diuretics?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia (Choice C). Loop diuretics can lead to potassium loss in the urine, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a common concern with loop diuretic therapy and necessitates regular monitoring. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with loop diuretics but with conditions like renal failure. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is more common with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a typical concern with loop diuretic use.
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