Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse expect to be elevated?

• A. Serum creatinine.
• B. Amylase.
• C. Hemoglobin.
• D. Blood glucose.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Amylase. Amylase is typically elevated in clients with acute pancreatitis due to inflammation of the pancreas. Elevated serum creatinine levels are more indicative of kidney dysfunction rather than pancreatitis. Hemoglobin levels are not directly related to pancreatitis. While blood glucose levels can be affected by pancreatitis, they are not typically the primary laboratory result expected to be elevated in this condition.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has depression and reports taking St. John's Wort along with citalopram. The nurse should monitor the client for which condition as a result of an interaction between these substances?

• A. Tardive dyskinesia.
• B. Serotonin syndrome.
• C. Pseudoparkinsonism.
• D. Acute dystonia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serotonin syndrome. Serotonin syndrome can occur due to the interaction between citalopram, an SSRI, and St. John's Wort, an herbal supplement. Symptoms of serotonin syndrome include confusion, agitation, rapid heart rate, high blood pressure, dilated pupils, loss of muscle coordination, and sweating. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with the interaction between citalopram and St. John's Wort. Tardive dyskinesia is a movement disorder associated with long-term use of certain medications, pseudoparkinsonism is a side effect of certain antipsychotic medications, and acute dystonia is a movement disorder caused by certain medications like antipsychotics.

3. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Measure the client's blood glucose level every 6 hours
• B. Change the TPN tubing every 24 hours
• C. Weigh the client weekly
• D. Administer the TPN through a peripheral IV line

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is to change the TPN tubing every 24 hours. This practice helps reduce the risk of infection in clients receiving parenteral nutrition. Measuring the client's blood glucose level every 6 hours is important for clients on insulin therapy or with diabetes, but it is not directly related to TPN administration. Weighing the client weekly is essential for monitoring fluid status and nutritional progress, but it is not specific to TPN care. Administering TPN through a peripheral IV line is incorrect because TPN solutions are hypertonic and can cause phlebitis or thrombosis if administered through a peripheral line; a central venous access is typically used for TPN administration.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a total knee replacement. The client reports pain of 8 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer ibuprofen 400 mg PO
• B. Administer oxycodone 10 mg PO
• C. Reposition the client to the unaffected side
• D. Apply a cold compress to the affected knee

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the appropriate action for the nurse to take when a client reports severe postoperative pain of 8 out of 10 is to administer oxycodone 10 mg PO. Oxycodone is a potent analgesic that is more effective in managing severe pain compared to ibuprofen, making choice A incorrect. Repositioning the client to the unaffected side or applying a cold compress may provide some comfort but are not the priority interventions for severe postoperative pain, making choices C and D less appropriate.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hr postpartum and has a third-degree perineal laceration. The client reports not having a bowel movement for 4 days. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

• A. Bisacodyl 10 mg rectal suppository.
• B. Magnesium hydroxide 30 ml PO.
• C. Famotidine 20 mg PO.
• D. Loperamide 4 mg PO.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should administer Bisacodyl 10 mg rectal suppository. Bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that promotes bowel movement, which is appropriate for a postpartum client experiencing constipation. Magnesium hydroxide (choice B) is an antacid and not indicated for constipation. Famotidine (choice C) is an H2 receptor antagonist used for reducing stomach acid production, not for constipation. Loperamide (choice D) is an antidiarrheal agent and would worsen constipation in this case.

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