Nursing Elites

1. What is the best intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Administer anticoagulants
• C. Reposition the patient
• D. Administer bronchodilators

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism because it helps alleviate respiratory distress and improve oxygenation. Oxygen therapy is crucial to ensure adequate oxygen levels in the blood due to the obstruction in the pulmonary circulation caused by the embolism. Administering anticoagulants (choice B) is a treatment for confirmed pulmonary embolism rather than a suspected case. Repositioning the patient (choice C) or administering bronchodilators (choice D) would not directly address the underlying issue of impaired gas exchange and oxygen delivery associated with pulmonary embolism.

2. A nurse is developing a care plan for a client who is receiving nitroprusside for severe hypertension. Which action should the nurse include?

• A. Administer calcium gluconate at the bedside.
• B. Monitor blood pressure every 2 hours.
• C. Limit light exposure to the infusion.
• D. Keep the client on NPO status.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the care plan for a client receiving nitroprusside for severe hypertension is to limit light exposure to the infusion. Nitroprusside is light-sensitive, so it should be protected from light exposure to prevent degradation. Administering calcium gluconate at the bedside is not directly related to nitroprusside administration. Monitoring blood pressure every 2 hours is a good practice but is not specifically related to the administration of nitroprusside. Keeping the client on NPO status is not necessary solely based on receiving nitroprusside.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 90/min
• B. Serum potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
• C. Weight gain of 2 kg (4.4 lb) in 2 days
• D. Heart rate of 76/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A weight gain of 2 kg (4.4 lb) in 2 days can indicate fluid retention, which is a sign of worsening heart failure and should be reported. This rapid weight gain suggests a fluid overload, putting the client at risk for complications. A heart rate of 90/min is slightly elevated but not as concerning as a sudden significant weight gain. The serum potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L is within the normal range and does not directly indicate worsening heart failure. A heart rate of 76/min is within the normal range and does not raise immediate concerns related to heart failure.

4. How should bleeding in a patient on warfarin be monitored?

• A. Monitor INR levels
• B. Monitor hemoglobin levels
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Monitor platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels. INR levels are the most critical indicator for monitoring bleeding risk in patients on warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio and specifically measures the clotting tendency of the blood. Monitoring hemoglobin levels, potassium levels, or platelet count are not as directly relevant to assessing bleeding risk in patients on warfarin.

5. A school nurse is teaching a parent about absence seizures. What information should be included?

• A. This type of seizure lasts 30 to 60 seconds.
• B. This type of seizure can be mistaken for daydreaming.
• C. The child usually has an aura prior to onset.
• D. This type of seizure has a gradual onset.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because absence seizures are brief and can be mistaken for daydreaming. Choice A is incorrect because absence seizures typically last a few seconds, not 30 to 60 seconds. Choice C is incorrect as absence seizures usually occur suddenly without an aura. Choice D is incorrect because absence seizures have a sudden onset, not a gradual one.

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