Nursing Elites

1. A client is 2 days postoperative following a hip replacement surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 88/min
• B. Redness and warmth in the calf
• C. Urine output of 30 mL/hr
• D. Heart rate of 96/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Redness and warmth in the calf can indicate a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a serious complication following hip replacement surgery. It is crucial to report this finding promptly for further evaluation and intervention. The other options, heart rates of 88/min and 96/min, are within normal limits for an adult and may not require immediate reporting. A urine output of 30 mL/hr is concerning for decreased kidney perfusion, but the priority in this case is the potential DVT due to its severe implications.

2. What lab value should a healthcare provider monitor for a patient on warfarin therapy?

• A. Potassium
• B. PT/INR
• C. Sodium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: PT/INR. When a patient is on warfarin therapy, healthcare providers monitor the PT/INR levels to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment and assess the risk of bleeding. Monitoring potassium, sodium, or calcium levels is not directly related to warfarin therapy and would not provide the necessary information needed to manage the medication effectively.

3. Which of the following lab values indicates a patient on warfarin is at a therapeutic level?

• A. INR of 1.1
• B. PT of 12 seconds
• C. INR of 2.5
• D. Platelet count of 150,000

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An INR of 2.5 indicates a therapeutic level for a patient on warfarin. The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the most accurate way to monitor and adjust warfarin doses. An INR of 1.1 (Choice A) is below the therapeutic range, indicating a need for an increased dose. PT (Prothrombin Time) of 12 seconds (Choice B) is not specific for warfarin therapy monitoring. Platelet count (Choice D) is not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is experiencing preterm contractions and dehydration. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Dehydration is treated with calcium supplements
• B. Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor
• C. Dehydration can increase gastroesophageal reflux
• D. Dehydration is caused by a decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should make is that dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor. Dehydration reduces amniotic fluid and uterine blood flow, potentially leading to preterm contractions. Choice A is incorrect because dehydration is not treated with calcium supplements but rather with adequate fluid intake. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration does not directly increase gastroesophageal reflux. Choice D is incorrect as dehydration is not caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels but rather by insufficient fluid intake or excessive fluid loss.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Gastric residual of 200 mL
• B. Heart rate of 100/min
• C. Urinary output of 250 mL in 12 hr
• D. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL is higher than expected and should be reported to prevent hyperglycemia complications. High blood glucose levels can lead to hyperglycemia, causing various issues such as increased risk of infection and delayed wound healing. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits for a client receiving continuous enteral feedings and do not require immediate reporting.

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