a nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has hypokalemia which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Flat T waves are a characteristic ECG finding in hypokalemia. Hypokalemia causes a decrease in serum potassium levels, leading to altered cardiac conduction. Flat T waves are associated with hypokalemia-induced cardiac dysrhythmias. Elevated ST segments are typically seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, not in hypokalemia. Bradycardia is not a typical manifestation of hypokalemia; instead, tachycardia may occur due to potassium imbalances affecting the heart's electrical activity.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin level. Monitoring the serum albumin level helps assess the nutritional effectiveness of total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Serum albumin is a protein that reflects the long-term nutritional status of a patient. Serum calcium level (choice A) is not directly related to TPN effectiveness. Blood glucose level (choice B) is important to monitor in diabetic patients but is not the primary indicator of TPN efficacy. Serum sodium level (choice D) is more related to fluid balance and electrolyte status rather than the effectiveness of TPN.

3. A nurse is assessing a school-age child with a urinary tract infection. What symptom should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Enuresis. Enuresis, which refers to involuntary urination, is a common symptom of urinary tract infections in children. Periorbital edema (choice A) is more commonly associated with conditions like nephrotic syndrome. Decreased frequency of urination (choice B) is not typically seen in urinary tract infections, as these infections often present with increased frequency. Diarrhea (choice D) is not a typical symptom of a urinary tract infection.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. The nurse discontinues the magnesium sulfate after the client displays toxicity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering calcium gluconate IV is the correct action when a client displays toxicity from magnesium sulfate. Calcium gluconate is used as the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity as it counteracts the effects. Positioning the client supine (Choice A) is not the immediate action needed. Administering dextrose 5% in water (Choice B) is not indicated for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Administering methylergonovine IM (Choice C) is used in postpartum hemorrhage, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lipsmacking is a common sign of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements such as lipsmacking, tongue protrusion, and facial grimacing. Agranulocytosis (choice B) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specifically associated with haloperidol. Clang association (choice C) is a form of disorganized speech seen in conditions like schizophrenia but is not a side effect of haloperidol. Alopecia (choice D) refers to hair loss and is not a common long-term side effect of haloperidol.

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