ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who is postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid crossing my legs when sitting.
- B. I will use a raised toilet seat.
- C. I will sleep on my affected side.
- D. I will perform leg exercises every hour while awake.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sleeping on the affected side could increase the risk of dislocation following a hip arthroplasty. It is essential for the client to avoid sleeping on the surgical side to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements that promote proper postoperative care and reduce the risk of complications. Avoiding crossing legs when sitting, using a raised toilet seat for proper positioning, and performing leg exercises regularly help in the recovery process and prevent complications.
2. How should a healthcare provider monitor a patient receiving heparin therapy?
- A. Monitor aPTT
- B. Monitor platelet count
- C. Monitor sodium levels
- D. Monitor calcium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. aPTT monitoring is essential for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, ensuring the patient is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent both clotting and bleeding. Monitoring platelet count (Choice B) is important for assessing for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary monitoring parameter for heparin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice C) and calcium levels (Choice D) are not directly related to assessing the therapeutic effectiveness or potential side effects of heparin therapy.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 15 degrees.
- B. Change the feeding bag every 48 hours.
- C. Administer the feeding through a large-bore syringe.
- D. Flush the tube with 0.9% sodium chloride every 4 hours.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take is to flush the tube with 0.9% sodium chloride every 4 hours. This helps maintain patency and prevents clogs during enteral feedings. Keeping the head of the bed elevated to 15 degrees (Choice A) is important for preventing aspiration but is not directly related to tube care. Changing the feeding bag every 48 hours (Choice B) is not a standard practice as the bag should be changed every 24 hours to prevent bacterial growth. Administering the feeding through a large-bore syringe (Choice C) is incorrect as enteral feedings should be given through an appropriate feeding pump for accuracy and safety.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?
- A. First-degree AV block.
- B. Premature ventricular contraction.
- C. Sinus bradycardia.
- D. Atrial fibrillation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.
5. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare professional review before administering the medication?
- A. Potassium
- B. Serum creatinine
- C. Sodium
- D. Hemoglobin A1C
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: The healthcare professional should review serum creatinine levels before administering metformin to assess kidney function. Metformin is excreted by the kidneys, and checking serum creatinine helps prevent lactic acidosis, a potential side effect in individuals with impaired renal function. Choice A: Potassium levels are not directly related to the administration of metformin. While monitoring potassium levels is important for some medications, it is not the priority when initiating metformin. Choice C: Sodium levels are not typically assessed specifically before starting metformin. It is not a routine lab test required prior to metformin administration. Choice D: Hemoglobin A1C reflects long-term blood sugar control and is not a lab test that needs to be reviewed before initiating metformin. It is used to monitor diabetes management over time, not for immediate medication administration considerations.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access