Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who is postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid crossing my legs when sitting.
• B. I will use a raised toilet seat.
• C. I will sleep on my affected side.
• D. I will perform leg exercises every hour while awake.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sleeping on the affected side could increase the risk of dislocation following a hip arthroplasty. It is essential for the client to avoid sleeping on the surgical side to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements that promote proper postoperative care and reduce the risk of complications. Avoiding crossing legs when sitting, using a raised toilet seat for proper positioning, and performing leg exercises regularly help in the recovery process and prevent complications.

2. What is the most important nursing action for a patient post-surgery?

• A. Monitor vital signs
• B. Monitor the surgical site
• C. Check blood pressure
• D. Check oxygen saturation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most crucial nursing action for a patient post-surgery is to monitor vital signs. Monitoring vital signs helps in detecting early signs of complications such as hemorrhage, shock, or infection. While monitoring the surgical site is important for assessing wound healing and signs of infection, it is secondary to monitoring vital signs. Checking blood pressure and oxygen saturation are also important, but they are components of monitoring vital signs.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 4 hours postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
• B. Heart rate of 88/min
• C. Urinary output of 30 mL/hr
• D. Hematocrit 42%

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Heart rate of 88/min.' A heart rate of 88/min in a postoperative client can be an early sign of bleeding or other complications. It is essential to report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges for a postoperative client and do not indicate immediate concern. A blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg is normal, urinary output of 30 mL/hr may be adequate depending on the client's fluid status, and a hematocrit of 42% is within the acceptable range for a postoperative client. Therefore, they do not require immediate reporting.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving warfarin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the need for an increase in the dose of warfarin?

• A. PT 28 seconds
• B. INR 1.2
• C. aPTT 40 seconds
• D. Fibrinogen 350 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An INR of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating inadequate anticoagulation. Therefore, the client would require an increase in the dose of warfarin to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of the need for a dose increase in warfarin therapy. PT of 28 seconds is within the therapeutic range, aPTT of 40 seconds is also within the normal range, and fibrinogen level of 350 mg/dL does not provide information about the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.

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