ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who is postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid crossing my legs when sitting.
- B. I will use a raised toilet seat.
- C. I will sleep on my affected side.
- D. I will perform leg exercises every hour while awake.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sleeping on the affected side could increase the risk of dislocation following a hip arthroplasty. It is essential for the client to avoid sleeping on the surgical side to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements that promote proper postoperative care and reduce the risk of complications. Avoiding crossing legs when sitting, using a raised toilet seat for proper positioning, and performing leg exercises regularly help in the recovery process and prevent complications.
2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 5.0 mEq/L
- B. Blood pressure 136/84 mm Hg
- C. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- D. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L is at the upper limit of normal and should be monitored closely in clients taking spironolactone, which is potassium-sparing. Elevated potassium levels can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in individuals on potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone. Monitoring and reporting high potassium levels are crucial to prevent potential complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Blood pressure (choice B), sodium level (choice C), and calcium level (choice D) are not directly related to the use of spironolactone and do not require immediate reporting in this scenario.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of a hemolytic transfusion reaction?
- A. Low back pain.
- B. Bradycardia.
- C. Chills.
- D. Distended neck veins.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Low back pain. Low back pain is a common sign of a hemolytic transfusion reaction, indicating the destruction of red blood cells. This finding requires immediate intervention as it can lead to serious complications such as renal failure. Bradycardia (choice B) is not typically associated with a hemolytic transfusion reaction. Chills (choice C) can be seen in febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions. Distended neck veins (choice D) are more indicative of fluid overload rather than a hemolytic reaction.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic pancreatitis. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse make?
- A. Coffee with creamer
- B. Lettuce with sliced avocados
- C. Broiled skinless chicken breast with brown rice
- D. Warm toast with margarine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Broiled skinless chicken breast with brown rice. This option is suitable for a client with chronic pancreatitis as it is a low-fat, high-protein meal. Clients with pancreatitis should avoid high-fat foods like creamer, margarine, and avocados, making options A, B, and D incorrect choices.
5. What is the priority intervention for a patient presenting with chest pain?
- A. Administer aspirin
- B. Administer nitroglycerin
- C. Reposition the patient
- D. Prepare for surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer aspirin. Administering aspirin is a priority intervention for a patient presenting with chest pain because it helps reduce the risk of further clot formation and improves oxygenation. Aspirin is commonly used in the initial management of suspected cardiac chest pain. Administering nitroglycerin can follow aspirin administration to help with vasodilation. Repositioning the patient or preparing for surgery are not the primary interventions for chest pain presentation.
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