Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following findings indicates a need to revise the client's plan of care?

• A. Serum sodium 144 mEq/L.
• B. HbA1c 10%.
• C. Random serum glucose 190 mg/dL.
• D. Creatinine 1.2 mg/dL.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated random serum glucose levels of 190 mg/dL indicate hyperglycemia and poor blood sugar control, requiring a revised plan of care. HbA1c levels above 7% also indicate long-term poor control of blood sugar. Serum sodium of 144 mEq/L and creatinine of 1.2 mg/dL are within normal ranges and do not directly indicate a need for a plan of care revision.

2. What is the best intervention for a patient with constipation?

• A. Administer a stool softener
• B. Encourage fluid intake
• C. Provide a high-fiber diet
• D. Administer a laxative

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging fluid intake is the best intervention for a patient with constipation. Fluids help soften stools, making them easier to pass. While stool softeners and laxatives can also help with constipation, they are more of a short-term solution and may not address the root cause. A high-fiber diet is beneficial for preventing constipation in the long run, but in the immediate situation of constipation, fluid intake is key.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Grilled chicken.
• B. Fresh fruit.
• C. White bread.
• D. Cheddar cheese.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cheddar cheese is high in phosphorus, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease. Fresh fruit is generally a healthy choice unless the client needs to limit potassium intake. Grilled chicken is a good protein source for clients with chronic kidney disease. White bread is low in phosphorus and can be included in the diet of clients with kidney disease unless they need to watch their carbohydrate intake.

4. A client has a nasogastric tube for gastric decompression. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Check for the presence of bowel sounds every 8 hours.
• B. Flush the NG tube every 24 hours.
• C. Provide the client with sips of water every 2 hours.
• D. Keep the client's head of the bed elevated to 45 degrees.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to keep the client's head of the bed elevated to 45 degrees. This position helps prevent aspiration in clients with a nasogastric tube for gastric decompression by reducing the risk of reflux and promoting proper drainage. Choice A is incorrect because checking for bowel sounds is not directly related to the care of a nasogastric tube. Choice B is incorrect as flushing the NG tube every 24 hours is not a standard nursing practice and may lead to complications. Choice C is incorrect because providing sips of water may interfere with the purpose of gastric decompression, which is to keep the stomach empty.

5. What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?

• A. Administer anticoagulants
• B. Administer oxygen
• C. Reposition the patient
• D. Monitor oxygen saturation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important nursing intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism is to administer anticoagulants. Anticoagulants help prevent further clot formation in the patient's blood vessels, reducing the risk of complications such as worsening of the pulmonary embolism or development of new clots. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be necessary to support the patient's oxygenation, but anticoagulants take precedence as they target the underlying cause of the pulmonary embolism. Repositioning the patient (Choice C) and monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice D) are important aspects of patient care but are not the primary intervention for a suspected pulmonary embolism.

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