a nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving chemotherapy which of the following findings should the nurse report immediat
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam 2023

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A platelet count of 90,000/mm³ indicates thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding and requires immediate intervention. Thrombocytopenia can lead to serious bleeding complications, so it is crucial to address this finding promptly. A low white blood cell count (choice A) may indicate neutropenia but is not as immediately life-threatening as severe thrombocytopenia. A hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL (choice B) would require intervention but is not as urgent as addressing a critically low platelet count. A serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L (choice D) is on the lower side of normal but does not pose an immediate risk to the client's safety compared to severe thrombocytopenia.

2. A client with a new diagnosis of hypertension is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Regular exercise is an essential component in managing hypertension. Exercising for at least 30 minutes a day, at least 5 days a week, can help control blood pressure. Checking blood pressure regularly (choice A) is important, but not as indicative of understanding the teaching as the commitment to regular exercise. Avoiding foods high in potassium (choice B) is not a typical recommendation for managing hypertension. Taking medication only when feeling dizzy (choice D) is incorrect and potentially dangerous; medications should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider.

3. What is the priority nursing assessment for a patient with chronic kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum creatinine. In patients with chronic kidney disease, monitoring serum creatinine is crucial as it reflects kidney function. This assessment helps healthcare providers in evaluating the progression of the disease and adjusting treatment plans accordingly. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) is essential in managing chronic kidney disease, but monitoring serum creatinine takes precedence. Monitoring urine output (choice C) and potassium levels (choice D) are also important aspects of managing chronic kidney disease, but they are not the priority assessment compared to monitoring serum creatinine.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following resources should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Food exchange lists are valuable resources for individuals with diabetes as they provide structured meal planning guidance. This helps individuals manage their diabetes effectively by controlling their carbohydrate intake. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because personal blogs may not provide reliable and evidence-based information, food label recommendations from the Institute of Medicine may not be specific for diabetes meal planning, and diabetes medication information from the Physicians' Desk Reference is not directly related to meal planning for diabetes management.

Similar Questions

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