ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving a continuous IV infusion of furosemide. Which of the following findings indicates the nurse should increase the client's infusion rate?
- A. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
- B. Heart rate of 90/min
- C. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- D. Weight gain of 1 kg in 24 hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A weight gain of 1 kg in 24 hours can indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure, requiring an increase in diuresis. This finding suggests that the current diuretic therapy is not effective enough to manage the fluid overload, necessitating an increase in the infusion rate of furosemide. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the need for an increase in diuretic therapy in heart failure patients. Urine output of 20 mL/hr, a heart rate of 90/min, and a sodium level of 138 mEq/L are important parameters to monitor but do not specifically indicate the need to increase the infusion rate of furosemide.
2. A healthcare provider is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension about dietary management. Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Bananas
- B. Carrots
- C. Bacon
- D. Chicken breast
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Bacon is high in sodium, which can elevate blood pressure levels. Clients with hypertension should avoid high-sodium foods like bacon to help manage their blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are healthier options compared to bacon and can be included in a balanced diet for someone with hypertension. Bananas are a good source of potassium, which can help in managing blood pressure. Carrots are low in sodium and high in fiber, making them a heart-healthy choice. Chicken breast is a lean protein option that is beneficial for individuals with hypertension.
3. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient for infection post-surgery?
- A. Monitor the surgical site
- B. Monitor for fever
- C. Check blood pressure
- D. Check for redness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring the surgical site is crucial to identify early signs of infection post-surgery. Redness, swelling, warmth, or discharge at the surgical site can indicate an infection. While monitoring for fever (choice B) is important as fever can also be a sign of infection, it may not always present immediately post-surgery. Checking blood pressure (choice C) is essential for other purposes but not specifically for monitoring infection post-surgery. Checking for redness (choice D) is limited as redness alone may not always indicate an infection, so it is not as comprehensive as monitoring the surgical site.
4. A client is being taught about patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). Which statement should be included in the teaching?
- A. The PCA will deliver a double dose of medication when you push the button twice.
- B. Continuous PCA infusion is designed to allow fluctuating plasma medication levels.
- C. You should push the button before physical activity to allow maximum pain control.
- D. You can adjust the amount of pain medication you receive by pushing on the keypad.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching about PCA is that the client can adjust the amount of pain medication they receive by pushing on the keypad. This empowers the client to control their pain management effectively. Choice A is incorrect because PCA systems are programmed to prevent double dosing when the button is pressed multiple times in quick succession. Choice B is incorrect as continuous PCA infusion aims to maintain a steady plasma medication level. Choice C is incorrect because it is not necessary to push the button before physical activity to ensure maximum pain control; the client should use the PCA as needed for pain relief.
5. A nurse is preparing to apply a transdermal nicotine patch for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Shave hairy areas of skin prior to application.
- B. Wear gloves to apply the patch to the client's skin.
- C. Apply the patch within 1 hr of removing it from the protective pouch.
- D. Remove the previous patch and place it in a tissue.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to wear gloves to apply the patch to the client's skin. This action ensures that the nurse does not absorb any medication through their own skin, promoting safety. Choice A is incorrect because shaving is not necessary and could irritate the skin. Choice C is incorrect because transdermal patches should be applied immediately after removal from the protective pouch to maintain their efficacy. Choice D is incorrect because used patches should be folded and discarded safely according to facility protocols.
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