Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare provider to report?

• A. Crackles in the lung bases
• B. Blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg
• C. Respiratory rate of 26/min
• D. Heart rate of 86/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26/min is a sign of respiratory distress and should be reported promptly in a client with pneumonia. Rapid breathing can indicate inadequate oxygenation and ventilation, which may lead to respiratory failure. Crackles in the lung bases are common in pneumonia but may not be as urgent as a high respiratory rate. A blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg is slightly low but may not be immediately life-threatening. A heart rate of 86/min is within the normal range for an adult and is not the most critical finding to report.

2. A client at 10 weeks of gestation reports frequent nausea and vomiting. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Eat high-protein foods.
• B. Lie down after meals.
• C. Drink water with meals.
• D. Eat dry carbohydrates before getting out of bed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During early pregnancy, nausea and vomiting are common. Instructing the client to eat dry carbohydrates like crackers before getting out of bed can help alleviate these symptoms. This recommendation helps prevent an empty stomach, which can worsen nausea. High-protein foods (Choice A) may be harder to digest and could exacerbate nausea. Lying down after meals (Choice B) may increase gastric reflux and worsen symptoms. Drinking water with meals (Choice C) may make the client feel fuller, potentially worsening nausea.

3. A client has a new ileostomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Apply a skin barrier around the stoma.
• B. Empty the pouch when it is one-third full.
• C. Change the entire pouching system weekly.
• D. Cleanse the peristomal skin with alcohol.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Changing the entire pouching system weekly is essential for maintaining skin integrity and preventing infection. Option A is incorrect as applying a skin barrier should be done during the pouch change, not separately. Option B is incorrect as ileostomy pouches should be emptied when they are one-third to one-half full to prevent leakage. Option D is incorrect because cleansing the peristomal skin with alcohol can be too harsh and may cause skin irritation.

4. A nurse is assessing a school-age child who has a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Periorbital edema.
• B. Decreased frequency of urination.
• C. Enuresis.
• D. Diarrhea.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Enuresis is the correct finding to expect in a school-age child with a urinary tract infection. Enuresis, or involuntary urination, is a common symptom of UTIs in children. Periorbital edema (Choice A) is not typically associated with UTIs. Decreased frequency of urination (Choice B) is less likely in UTIs as there is often an increased urge to urinate. Diarrhea (Choice D) is not a common symptom of UTIs and is more indicative of gastrointestinal issues.

5. A client with a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus is being taught about foot care by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Soak your feet in warm water daily.
• B. Wear shoes that are one size larger than your normal size.
• C. Wear cotton socks to keep your feet dry.
• D. Trim your toenails straight across.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Trim your toenails straight across." This instruction is essential to prevent ingrown toenails in clients with diabetes. Soaking feet in warm water daily (choice A) may increase the risk of skin breakdown and infection. Wearing shoes one size larger than normal (choice B) can lead to friction and cause blisters. While wearing cotton socks (choice C) is generally recommended, the emphasis should be on moisture-wicking materials rather than just cotton.

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