a nurse is assessing a client who has pneumonia which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare provider to report?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26/min is a sign of respiratory distress and should be reported promptly in a client with pneumonia. Rapid breathing can indicate inadequate oxygenation and ventilation, which may lead to respiratory failure. Crackles in the lung bases are common in pneumonia but may not be as urgent as a high respiratory rate. A blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg is slightly low but may not be immediately life-threatening. A heart rate of 86/min is within the normal range for an adult and is not the most critical finding to report.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Monitor for signs of infection.' Clopidogrel affects platelet levels, increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, it is essential for clients taking clopidogrel to monitor for signs of infection, which could indicate a lowered immune response. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the specific monitoring needs associated with clopidogrel therapy.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing education material for a client. Which of the following techniques should the professional use in creating material?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Use a 7th-grade reading level.' This ensures that the material is accessible to most clients by keeping the language simple and easy to understand. Emphasizing important information using bold lettering (Choice A) can be helpful but may not enhance overall readability. Avoiding cartoons (Choice C) is not a universal rule and can sometimes make the material more engaging. Using words with three or four syllables (Choice D) can make the material difficult to comprehend for many clients.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for iron supplements. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client understands the teaching about iron supplements, they should know that black, tarry stools are a normal side effect. This indicates that the medication is being absorbed and working effectively. Choices A and B are incorrect because iron supplements should not be taken with milk or orange juice, as these can interfere with the absorption of iron. Choice D is also incorrect because iron supplements are usually best absorbed on an empty stomach, so taking them before bedtime may not be ideal.

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