Nursing Elites

1. A client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and is scheduled for a nonstress test is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should avoid drinking fluids during the test.
• B. I will need to drink a sugar solution before the test.
• C. This test will monitor how my baby is responding to contractions.
• D. This test will assess for fetal lung maturity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client should drink a sugar solution for a glucose challenge test, which is part of the nonstress test protocol during pregnancy. Choice A is incorrect because adequate hydration is generally recommended before the test. Choice C is incorrect as the nonstress test monitors the baby's heart rate in response to its own movements, not contractions. Choice D is incorrect as the nonstress test does not assess fetal lung maturity.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Gastric pH of 2.5.
• B. Bowel sounds every 4 hours.
• C. Diarrhea of 250 mL in 24 hours.
• D. Gastric residual of 150 mL.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A gastric residual of 150 mL may indicate delayed gastric emptying and should be reported to the provider.

3. Which medication is used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Epinephrine
• C. Atropine
• D. Lidocaine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Naloxone is the correct answer. Naloxone is specifically used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose by binding to opioid receptors and blocking the effects of opioids. Epinephrine is mainly used to treat severe allergic reactions, Atropine is used for certain types of heart conditions and to reduce salivation or respiratory secretions, and Lidocaine is a local anesthetic used for numbing purposes. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect in the context of reversing opioid overdose.

4. A client has a chest tube. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Clamp the chest tube for 15 minutes every 2 hours.
• B. Maintain the drainage system below the client's chest.
• C. Strip the chest tube every 2 hours.
• D. Keep the collection device at the level of the client's chest.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining the chest tube drainage system below the client's chest level is crucial to ensure proper drainage and prevent complications. Clamping the chest tube can lead to a tension pneumothorax, stripping the chest tube is an outdated practice that can cause damage to the tissues, and keeping the collection device at the level of the client's chest can impede proper drainage and lead to fluid accumulation.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Serum potassium 5.4 mEq/L
• B. Flat T waves
• C. Elevated ST segments
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Flat T waves are a characteristic ECG finding in hypokalemia. Hypokalemia causes a decrease in serum potassium levels, leading to altered cardiac conduction. Flat T waves are associated with hypokalemia-induced cardiac dysrhythmias. Elevated ST segments are typically seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, not in hypokalemia. Bradycardia is not a typical manifestation of hypokalemia; instead, tachycardia may occur due to potassium imbalances affecting the heart's electrical activity.

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