ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. When managing blood pressure at home, which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching provided by a nurse for hypertension?
- A. I will take my medication only when I feel dizzy.
- B. I will check my blood pressure at least once a week.
- C. I will stop taking my medication once my blood pressure is within normal range.
- D. I will sit quietly for 5 minutes before measuring my blood pressure.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because sitting quietly for 5 minutes before measuring blood pressure ensures an accurate reading and helps monitor hypertension. Choice A is incorrect as medications for hypertension should be taken as prescribed, not based on symptoms like dizziness. Choice B is not ideal as blood pressure should be checked more frequently, preferably daily. Choice C is incorrect as stopping medication abruptly once blood pressure is normal can lead to rebound hypertension.
2. A nurse is preparing to perform postmortem care for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client's dentures in a labeled container
- B. Remove the client's IV lines
- C. Place the client's body in a semi-fowler's position
- D. Lower the client's head of the bed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to perform postmortem care is to remove the client's IV lines. This step is essential to help maintain the dignity and appearance of the body. Placing the client's dentures in a labeled container (Choice A) is not a priority during postmortem care as the focus is on the body's preparation. While positioning the body in a semi-fowler's position (Choice C) or lowering the client's head of the bed (Choice D) are common practices for living clients to prevent aspiration, they are not necessary after death. Therefore, the immediate action of removing IV lines is most appropriate in this situation.
3. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Baked chicken
- B. Bananas
- C. Lean cuts of beef
- D. Canned soup
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Canned soup. Canned soups are typically high in sodium, which can lead to fluid retention in clients with chronic kidney disease. Sodium restriction is crucial in managing this condition. Choice A, baked chicken, is a lean protein source that is generally recommended for individuals with kidney disease. Bananas (Choice B) are high in potassium, so clients with kidney disease may need to limit their intake depending on their individual treatment plan. Lean cuts of beef (Choice C) can be a good source of protein and iron for clients with kidney disease as long as portion sizes are controlled to manage protein intake.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer insulin glargine to a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the insulin via IV push.
- B. Rotate injection sites to prevent tissue damage.
- C. Mix the insulin with regular insulin before administering it.
- D. Administer the insulin at the same time each day.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when administering insulin glargine is to give it at the same time each day. This consistent timing helps maintain stable blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect because insulin glargine should not be administered via IV push. Choice B is incorrect as rotating injection sites is typically done for short-acting insulins to prevent lipodystrophy, not for insulin glargine. Choice C is incorrect as insulin glargine should not be mixed with other insulins before administration.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?
- A. White blood cell count of 4,500/mm³
- B. Hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL
- C. Platelet count of 90,000/mm³
- D. Serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A platelet count of 90,000/mm³ indicates thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding and requires immediate intervention. Thrombocytopenia can lead to serious bleeding complications, so it is crucial to address this finding promptly. A low white blood cell count (choice A) may indicate neutropenia but is not as immediately life-threatening as severe thrombocytopenia. A hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL (choice B) would require intervention but is not as urgent as addressing a critically low platelet count. A serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L (choice D) is on the lower side of normal but does not pose an immediate risk to the client's safety compared to severe thrombocytopenia.
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